Psychology is commonly defined as:

1
Psychology is commonly defined as

• The study of behavior
• The study of the mind
• The study of behavior and mental processes
• The study of early childhood
• c. The study of behavior and mental processes

2
Which of the following are the goals of
psychology?

• Describe, manipulate, control and examine
  behavior
• Describe, explain, predict and change behavior
• Predict, control, examine and change behavior
• Manipulate, control, explain and change behavior
• b. Describe, explain, predict and change behavior

3
Psychology often questions to what extent we are
controlled by biological and genetic factors or
by the environment and learning. This ongoing
debate is known as the _____.

• Nature vs. Nurture controversy
• Mind vs. Body Dualism
• Interactionist position
• Biopsychosocial Model
• A. Nature-Nurture Controversy

4
Applied research is conducted to study __________.

• How people apply knowledge in an educational
  setting
• Theoretical questions that may or may not have
  real-world applications
• The goals of psychology
• A specific real-world problem
• D. A specific real-world problem

5
The experimental group, in an experiment, is the
group in which the participants _____.

• Do not receive the independent variable
• Receive the dependent variable
• Do not receive the DV
• Receive the IV
• D. Receive the IV

6
The total of all possible cases from which a
sample is selected is called the __________.

• subject pool
• population
• selection group
• control group
• B) population

7
The first step in the scientific method is _____.

• Forming a testable hypothesis
• Developing a theory
• Reviewing the literature of existing theories
• Designing a study
• C. Reviewing the literature of existing theories

8
The ______ variable is the variable that is
measured.

• Independent
• Intervening
• Controlled
• Dependent
• D) Dependent

9
The tendency of experimenters to influence the
results of their experiment in an expected
direction is called ____.

• Experimenter bias
• Control bias
• Observational bias
• Experimental bias
• A) Experimenter bias

10
A hypothesis is derived from a ______.

• idea
• research paper
• brainstorming
• theory
• D) theory

11
A procedure to ensure that each individual has
the same probability as any other of being in a
given group is called _____.

• Random selection
• Random assignment
• Representative selection
• Representative assignment
• B. Random assignment

12
Cells within your body specialized for conducting
information are called ____?

• Dendrites
• Neurons
• Axons
• Nucleotides
• b. Neurons

13
The three major parts of a neuron are ____.

• Glia, dendrites, and myelin
• Myelin, dendrites, and axon
• Dendrites, axon and cell body
• Axon, glia, and myelin
• c. Dendrites, axon and cell body

14
The ____ consists of all the nerves that connect
to sensory receptors and control skeletal muscles

• Parasympathetic nervous system
• Spinal cord
• Somatic nervous system
• Action potential
• c. Somatic nervous system

15
___ provide structural, nutritional, and other
support for the neuron, as well as some
communication functions

• Dendrites
• Axons
• Nurturing bodies
• Glial cells
• d. Glial cells

16
Chemical messengers that are secreted into the
synapse are called ____.

• Ions
• Neurotransmitters
• Neurocommunicators
• Neuromodulators
• b. Neurotransmitters

17
The synapse is the point where ____.

• The soma attaches to the dendrite
• Neurotransmitters are manufactured
• Information transfers from neuron to neuron
• The action potential begins
• c. Information transfers from neuron to neuron

18
If you are accidentally hit on the head and you
see flashes of light, most likely the blow
activated cells in the ____.

• Frontal lobes
• Temporal lobes
• Occipital lobes
• Parietal lobes
• c. Occipital lobes

19
The frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal
lobes make up the ____

• Brain
• Cerebral cortex
• Subcortex
• Brain stem
• b. Cerebral cortex

20
The major divisions of the central nervous system
are ___.

• Sympathetic and parasympathetic
• Somatic and autonomic
• Gray matter and white matter
• Brain and spinal cord
• d. Brain and spinal cord

21
The parasympathetic nervous system is dominant
when a person is ___.

• Stressed
• Relaxed
• Frightened
• Angry
• b. Relaxed

22
The parasympathetic and sympathetic are the major
divisions of the ____ nervous system

• Automatic
• Somatic
• Central
• Autonomic
• d. Autonomic

23
The principle whereby an axon either fires or
does not fire an action potential is called the
_____

• Sodium-potassium
• Axon terminal
• Shotgun
• All-or-none law
• d. All-or-none law

24
Damage to the medulla can lead to loss of ____.

• Vision
• Respiration
• Hearing
• Smell
• b. Respiration

25
The cerebellum, the thalamus, and the
hypothalamus are all ____.

• Lower-level brain structures
• Cortical areas
• Brain stem areas
• Spinal cord areas
• a. Lower-level brain structures

26
Split-brain research has indicated that, in most
people, the left hemisphere is largely
responsible for _____ abilities

• Musical
• Spatial
• Artistic
• Language
• d. Language

27
Neurons are the basic units in the _____.

• Nervous system
• Synapses
• Dendrites
• Body
• a. Nervous system

28
_____ is an organisms awareness of its own self
and surroundings.

• Awareness
• Consciousness
• Alertness
• Central processing
• a. consciousness

29
_____ processes are mental activities that
require minimal attention, without affecting
other activities.

• Controlled
• Peripheral
• Conscious
• Automatic
• d. Automatic

30
Biological rhythms that occur on a 24-hour cycle
are called _____.

• Circadian rhythms
• Synchronisms
• Diurnal circuits
• Noctural transmissions
• a. Circadian rhythms

31
The _____ theory says that sleep allows us to
replenish what was depleted during daytime
activities.

• Repair/restoration
• Evolutionary/circadian
• Supply/demand
• Conservation of energy
• a. repair/restoration

32
Insomnia occurs when you persistently _____.

• Have difficulty staying awake
• Go to sleep too early
• Awake too early
• All of the above
• c. Awake too early

33
_____ is a disease marked by sudden and
irresistible onsets of sleep during normal waking
hours.

• Dyssomnia
• Parasomnia
• Narcolepsy
• Sleep apnea
• c. Narcolepsy

34
A chemical that blocks the action of a
neurotransmitter is called a/an _____.

• Synaptic inhibitor
• Antagonist
• Alternator
• Receptor-blocker
• b. Antagonist

35
A mental desire or craving to achieve the effects
produced by a drug is known as _____.

• Withdrawal effects
• Dependency
• Psychological dependence
• Physical dependence
• c. Psychological dependence

36
Requiring larger and more frequent doses of a
drug to produce a desired effect is
characteristic of _____.

• Withdrawal
• Tolerance
• Psychoactive dependence
• All of the above
• b. Tolerance

37
Which of the following drugs is a central nervous
system stimulant?

• Amphetamine
• Alcohol
• Heroin
• Barbiturates
• a. amphetamine

38
Which of the following is NOT classified as a
hallucinogen?

• Mescaline
• Psilocybin
• Amphetamines
• LSD
• d. LSD

39
_____ drugs produce sensory distortions or
perceptual illusions.

• Stimulants
• Opiates
• Depressants
• Hallucinogens
• d. Hallucinogens

40
EEG is the abbreviation for _____, which is used
to record brain waves.

• Electrical emissions graph
• Electroencephalograph
• Electro-energy grams
• Even elephants get grumpy
• b. Electroencephalograph

41
Your breathing is regular, your heart rate and
blood pressure are slowing, and you can be
awakened easily. It is most likely that you are
in _____.

• A hypnogogic transition between wakefulness and
  sleep
• A daydreaming state
• Stage 1 sleep
• Stage 2 sleep
• c. Stage 1 sleep

42
A relatively permanent change in behavior as a
result of practice or experience is the
definition of ___.

• Learning
• Conditioning
• Behavior modification
• Modeling
• a. Learning

43
When your mouth waters at the sight of a
chocolate cake, it is an example of ____.

• Operant conditioning
• Social learning
• Vicarious conditioning
• Classical conditioning
• d. Classical conditioning

44
Suppose a boy learns to fear bees by being stung
when he touches a bee. In this situation the
unconditioned STIMULUS is the ____.

• Bee
• Sting
• Fear
• Crying
• b. Sting

45
Suppose a boy learns to fear bees by being stung
when he touches a bee. In this situation the
unconditioned RESPONSE is the ____.

• Bee
• Sting
• Fear
• Crying
• c. Fear

46
Which of the following is the proper sequence of
events in classical conditioning?

• UCS-CS-UCR
• CS-UCS-UCR
• UCR-UCS-CS
• UCR-CS-UCS
• b. CS-UCS-UCR

47
Higher order conditioning occurs when an____.

• Previously neutral stimulus elicits a conditioned
  response
• Neutral stimulus is paired with a previously
  conditioned stimulus
• Neutral stimulus is paired with unconditioned
  stimulus
• Unconditioned response is paired with a
  conditioned stimulus
• b. Neutral stimulus is paired with a conditioned
  stimulus

48
In classical conditioning, extinction occurs when
the ____.

• Conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with the
  unconditioned response
• Conditioned response is no longer paired with the
  unconditioned stimulus
• Conditioned response is no longer paired with the
  unconditioned stimulus
• Unconditioned stimulus is ambiguous
• b. Conditioned response is no longer paired with
  the unconditioned stimulus

49
Anything that causes an increase in a response is
a ___.

• Conditioned stimulus
• Reinforcement
• Punishment
• Unconditioned stimulus
• b. Reinforcement

50
Anything that causes a decrease in a response is
a/an ____.

• Conditioned stimulus
• Reinforcement
• Punishment
• Unconditioned stimulus
• c. Punishment

51
Negative reinforcement and punishment are ____.

• The same
• The best ways to learn a new behavior
• Not the same because negative reinforcement
  increases behavior and punishment decreases
  behavior
• Not the same, even though they both decrease
  behavior
• c. Not the same because negative reinforcement
  increases behavior and punishment decreases
  behavior

52
Making yourself study before you go to the movies
is a good application of ____.

• Negative reinforcement
• Positive punishment
• Fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement
• The Premack principle
• d. The Premack principle

53
Gamblers become addicted to their sport as a
result of ____.

• Previously generalized response discrimination
• Previously extinguished response recovery
• Partial (intermittent) reinforcement
• Behavior being learned and not conditioned
• c. Partial (intermittent) reinforcement

54
Superstitious behavior occurs because ___.

• It has been reinforced on a fixed ratio schedule
• The person or animal thinks the behavor causes a
  reinforcer when in reality the behavior and the
  reinforcement are not connected
• It is reinforced on a random ration schedule
• The behavior and the reinforcement come close in
  proximity to one another, causing the
  superstitious behavior to increase in magnitude
• b. The person or animal thinks the behavior
  causes a reinforcer when in reality the behavior
  and the reinforcement are not connected

55
In Pavlovs classical conditioning experiments
with dogs, salivation was the ____.

• Unconditioned stimulus (UCS)
• Conditioned response (CR)
• Unconditioned repose (UCR)
• Both b and c
• c. Unconditioned repose (UCR)

56
In Watson and Rayners Little Albert experiment,
what was the neutral stimulus (NS)?

• The sight if the experimental room
• A loud noise
• A rabbit
• A rat
• d. A rat

57
Albert Banduras social learning theory
emphasized ____.

• Classical conditioning
• Operant conditioning
• Extinction
• Modeling
• d. Modeling

58
In Watson and Rayners experiment, what was the
conditioned emotional response (CER)?

• Avoidance behavior
• Superstitious behavior
• Fear
• None of the above
• c. Fear

59
In Watson and Rayners experiment, what was the
conditioned stimulus?

• The sight if the experimental room
• A loud noise
• A rabbit
• A rat
• d. A rat

60
In higher order conditioning, a neutral stimulus
is paired with ____.

• Another neutral stimulus
• A previously conditioned stimulus
• Two or more unconditioned stimuli
• Two or more unconditioned responses
• b. A previously conditioned stimulus

61
Spontaneous recovery occurs when ___ suddenly
appears

• Your lost wallet
• A previously extinguished response
• An extinct instinct
• A forgotten stimulus- response sequence
• b. A previously extinguished response

62
Children may learn to salivate to McDonalds
golden arches as a result of

• Advertising
• Classical conditioning
• Higher-order conditioning
• All of the above
• d. All of the above

63
Operant conditioning is an example of ___ in
action

• Thorndikes law of effect
• Skinners law of reinforcement
• Watsons rule of punishment
• Pavlovs theory of stimulus-response
• a. Thorndikes law of effect

64
____ are unlearned, usually satisfy a biological
need, and increase the probability of a response

• Primary instincts
• Secondary instincts
• Primary reinforcers
• Secondary reinforcers
• c. Primary reinforcers

65
Observational learning theory suggests that we
learn many behaviors by ____.

• Imitating others
• Observing our inner processes
• Teaching others
• Shaping our own and others behaviors
• a. Imitating others

66
In Albert Banduras classic bobo doll study,
children acted aggressively because ____.

• They were rewarded for their behavior
• Of observational learning
• They were positively punished
• All of these options
• b. Of observational learning

67
Maintenance rehearsal _______

• Prevents motivated forgetting
• Prevents chunking
• Reenters information in sensory memory
• Reenters information in STM
• c. Reenters information in sensory memory

68
Which of the following is a recognition test of
memory?

• Remembering a name that goes with a face
• A multiple choice test
• An essay test
• Reciting the names of the state capitals
• b. A multiple choice test

69
You notice that you tend to do better on exam
questions from the first and last of each
chapter. The most likely explanation is the ____.

• Anterograde amnesia effect
• Problem of distribute practice
• Serial position effect
• Sleeper effect
• c. Serial position effect

70
Short-term memory receives information from
sensory memory and from ____.

• Long term memory
• Working memory
• The perceptual processing network
• Maintenance rehearsal
• a. Long term memory

71
The process that allows us to store more
information in short-term memory by grouping
information into units is called ____.

• Maintenance
• Collective organization
• Chunking
• Proximal closure
• c. Chunking

72
To increase the duration and capacity of you STM
you should try ____.

• Maintenance rehearsal
• Chunking
• Constructive process
• All of the above
• b. Chunking

73
The ____ effect suggests that people will recall
information presented at the beginning and the
end of a list better than information from the
middle of the list.

• Recency
• Serial position
• Latency
• Primacy
• b. Serial position

74
Developmental psychologists are not interested in
___.

• Fetal well-being
• Age-related differences
• Age-related similarities
• Life after death
• d. Life after death

75
Age at crawling, walking, and toilet training is
primarily dependant on the ____

• Educational level of the parents
• Specific training techniques of the childs
  caretakers
• Maturational readiness of the child
• Genetic influences inherited from both mother and
  father
• c. Maturational readiness of the child

76
A ____ is the most appropriate research method
for studying age-changes across the life span.

• Case study
• Natural observation
• Longitudinal study
• Cross sectional study
• c. Longitudinal study

77
Conception occurs when a ____

• Fertilized egg implants in the uterine lining
• Ovum undergoes its first cell division
• Ejaculation occurs
• Sperm cell unites with an ovum
• b. Ovum undergoes its first cell division

78
Rapid cell division from conception to two weeks
is known as the ____ period

• Fetal
• Germinal
• Embryonic
• Conceptual
• b. Germinal

79
At birth an infant cannot ____.

• See as well as an adult
• Recognize the taste or odor of its own mothers
  milk
• Feel pain
• Turn its head without help
• a. See as well as an adult

80
The period of life when an individual first
becomes capable of reproduction is knows as ____.

• The growth spurt
• Adolescence
• Puberty
• The latency period
• c. Puberty

81
Which of the following is correctly matched?

• Lorenzageism
• Piagetpermissive parenting
• Harlowcontact comfort
• Baumrindaccommodation
• c. Harlowcontact comfort

82
According to Freud, infants become attached to
the caregiver that provides ____, but according
to Harlow, attachment results from____.

• Oral pleasure contact comfort
• Unconscious needs imprinting
• Nourishment touching
• None of the above
• a. Oral pleasure contact comfort

83
Harlows research with infant monkeys and
artificial surrogate mothers indicates that ____.

• The most important factor in infant development
  is a loving environment
• Attachment is not essential to normal development
• There is no significant difference in the choice
  of wire or terrycloth mother
• The most important variable in attachment may be
  contact comfort
• d. The most important variable in attachment may
  be contact comfort

84
According to Piaget, an infant acquires ___ when
he or she understands that people and things
continue to exist even when they cannot directly
be seen, heard or touched.

• Conservation
• Reversibility
• Egocentrism
• Object permanence
• d. Object permanence

85
Piaget used the term egocentrism to describe the
fact that ___.

• All children are naturally selfish during the
  first few years of life
• Children view the world from one perspective
  (their own)
• The childs limited logic impedes his or her
  understanding of the need to share
• Children are unable to conserve
• b. Children view the world from one perspective
  (their own)

86
During Piagets fourth stage of cognitive
development, adolescents first become capable of
____.

• Egocentrism
• Dealing effectively with transformations
• Using language and other symbols
• Hypothetical thinking
• d. Hypothetical thinking

87
Today the interactionist approach to development
is supported by ____.

• More nativists than empiricists
• More empiricists that nativists
• More psychologists
• More psychiatrists than psychologists
• c. More psychologists

88
The ____method of research may confuse genuine
age differences with cohort effects, differences
that result from specific histories of the age
group studied.

• Cross-cultural
• Longitudinal
• Cross-sectional
• All of the above
• c. cross-sectional

89
Schemas are cognitive structures that contain
organized ideas about the world and____.

• Expand or differentiate with expierence
• May assimilate new information
• May accommodate new information
• All of the above
• d. All of the above

90
According to Piaget, accommodation means that a
schema has ____

• Been changed to fit new information
• Been used to understand new information
• Reversed itself
• Conversed itself
• a. Been changed to fit new information

91
Piagets four stages of cognative development
start with the sensorimoter and preoperational
stages, and end with the ____ stages

• Assimilation and accommodation
• Operation and abstraction
• Concrete and formal operational
• Concept testing and deductive reasoning
• c. Concrete and formal operational

92
Egocentrism is present in which of Piagets
stages of cognitive development

• Preoperational and operational
• Preoperational only
• Sensorimoter and preoperational
• Sensorimoter only
• a. Preoperational and operational

93
The child who believes the sun follows him or her
around and that trees have feelings are probably
in the ___ stage of development.

• Preoperational
• terrible teens
• Concrete operational
• Formal operational
• a. Preoperational

94
During Kohlbergs ____ level of moral development
right and wrong are judged on the basis of
consequences

• Conventional
• Amoral
• Postconventional
• Preconventional
• d. Preconventional

95
When people have developed their own standards of
right and wrong they are judged by Kohlbergs
theory to be at the ____ level of morality

• Adolescent
• Postconventional
• Nonconventional
• Conventional
• b. Postconventional

96
Kohlbergs theory of moral development has been
criticized for its ____.

• Cultural bias toward western ideas of morality
• Political bias in favor of conservatives
• Sexual bias in favor of women
• Ethnic bias against anglosaxons
• a. Cultural bias toward western ideas of morality

97
The positive or negative resolution of 8
developmental challenges is characteristic of ___
theory

• Freuds psychosexual
• Freuds psychoanalytic
• Maslows hierarchecical
• Eriksons psychosocial
• d. Eriksons psychosocial

98
According to Erikson, the challenge faced by
infants in their first year is ____

• a. weaning
• b. object premanence
• c. trust versus mistrust
• d. toilet training
• c. Trust versus mistrust

99
According to Erikson, the need to develop a sense
of identity is the principle task of ____.

• The phallic stage of psychosexual development
• adolescence
• middle adulthood
• The generativity versus stagnation stage of
  development
• b. adolescence

100
According to Erikson, the inner conflict during
which an individual examines his or her life and
values and makes decisions about life roles is
called a(n) ____ crisis.

• Midlife
• Climactieric
• Integrity
• Identity
• d. Identity

101
In Eriksons final stage of psychosocial
development, adults may ____ .

• Regret lost opportunities
• Become despondent
• Review their accomplishments
• Any of the above
• d. Any of the above

102
Moral judgment is self centered and based on
obtaining rewards and avoiding punishment in this
stage of moral development

• Preoperational
• Preconventional
• Conventional
• Postoperational
• b. Preconventional

103
Once an individual excepts, internalizes, and
applies the rules of society in making moral
decisions, he or she is in the ______ stage.

• Formal conventional
• Conventional
• Informal operational
• Social operational
• b. Conventional

104
According to Erikson, industry is the result of
successful completion of this stage of
development

• Infancy and toddlerhood
• ages 6 puberty
• Young adulthood
• Middle adulthood
• b. ages 6 puberty

105
During early childhood, your child will have a
growing self awareness and need for independence.
Erikson called this psychosocial crisis the need
for ____.

• Authoritarian discipline
• acceptance versus mistrust
• Autonomy versus shame and doubt
• Attachment versus autonomy
• c. Autonomy versus shame and doubt

106
According to Erikson, resolution of critical
conflict of young adulthood leads to the sense of
____.

• Parental rejection
• Strong parental control
• Intimacy
• None of these options
• c. Intimacy

107
The ____ theory of aging suggests that it is
natural and necessary for people to withdraw from
their roles in life as they age in order to
prepare themselves for death

• Kubler-Ross
• Secondary process
• Developmental
• Disengagement
• d. Disengagement

108
Which of the following is NOT one of the four
stages in the normal grieving process?

• Numbness
• Yearning
• Begging
• Resolution
• c. Begging

109
As adults we understand death in terms of three
general concepts permanence, universality, and
____.

• Spirituality
• Painfulness
• Nonfunctionality
• All of these options
• c. Nonfunctionality

110
According to Elizabeth Kubler-Ross which of the
following is not one of the stages that people go
through while coping with death?

• Retrenchment
• Denial
• Anger
• Bargaining
• a. Retrenchment

111
The acronym DABDA is used to remember
Kubler-Rosss stages of dying. First comes denial
and anger, followed by ____ and depression, then
ending with acceptance.

• Bargaining
• Begging
• Believing
• Borrowing (hope)
• a. Bargaining

112
This type of anxiety is associated with a
generalized anxiety disorder

• Phobia
• Free-floating
• Panic attack
• Nervous breakdown
• b. Free-floating

113
Repetitive, ritualistic behaviors such as
handwashing, counting, or putting things in order
that are associated with an anxiety state are
called ____.

• Obsessions
• Compulsions
• Ruminations
• Phobias
• b. Compulsions

114
A major difference between major depressive and
bipolar disorder is that only in bipolar
disorders do people have ____.

• Hallucinations or delusions
• Depression
• A biochemical imbalance
• Manic episodes
• d. Manic episodes

115
This is NOT a possible explanation for depression

• Imbalances of serotonin and norepinephrine
• Genetic predisposition
• Lithium deficiency
• Learned helplessness
• c. Lithium deficiency

116
Hallucinations and delusions are symptoms of
____.

• Mood disorders
• Personality disorders
• Anxiety disorders
• Schizophrenia
• d. Schizophrenia

117
Family studies have shown that when it comes to
schizophrenia, children are more similar to their
____.

• Biological parents than their adopted parents
• Adopted parents than their biological parents
• Friends than their families
• Aunts/uncles than their brothers/sisters
• a. Biological parents than their adaptive parents

118
Antipsychotic drugs can decrease the symptoms of
schizophrenia by decreasing the activity of ____.

• Dopamine synapses
• Serotonin synapses
• The frontal lobes
• The autonomic nervous system
• a. Dopamine synapses

119
Amnesia, fugue, and dissociative identity
disorder share this characteristic.

• A separation of experience and memory
• Psychosis
• A split personality
• Wandering away from home or work
• a. A separation of experience and memory

120
Multiple personality disorder is now called ____.

• Schizophrenia
• Dissociative identity disorder
• Amnesiatic personality disorder
• None of these options this diagnosis is no
  longer considered real
• b. Dissociative identity disorder

121
Impulsive behavior, egocentrism, lack of
conscience, and ____ are all characteristic of an
antisocial personality disorder.

• Manipulation of others
• Lack of social skills
• Sympathy for victims
• Lack of intelligence
• a. Manipulation of others

122
Impulsivity and instability in mood,
relationships, and self-image are part of the
____ personality disorder.

• Manic depressive
• Bipolar
• Borderline
• None of the above
• c. Borderline

123
People with ____ frequently have a childhood
history of neglect and abuse, and as adults tend
to see themselves and everyone else in absolutes.

• Dissociative identity disorder
• Schizophrenia
• Generalized anxiety disorder
• Borderline personality disorder
• d. Borderline Personality disorder

124
In ____ disorder, the individual suffers brief
attacks of intense apprehension.

• Phobic
• Posttraumatic stress
• Panic
• Dissociative fugue
• c. Panic

125
According to ____ theory, modeling and imitation
may be the causes of some phobia.

• Social learning
• Psychobiological
• Sociocultural
• Cognitive-behavioral
• a. Social Learning

126
Distorted thinking that magnifies ordinary
threats or failures is the ____ explanation for
anxiety disorders.

• Social learning
• Cognitive
• Humanistic
• Psychoanalytic
• b. Cognitive

127
Mood disorders are sometimes treated by ____
drug, which affect the amount or functioning of
norepinephrine and serotonin.

• Antidepressants
• Antipsychotics
• Mood congruence
• None of the above
• a. Antidepressants

128
Internal, stable, and global attributions for
failure or unpleasant circumstances are
associated with ____.

• Anxiety disorders
• Delusional disorders
• Depression
• All of these options
• c. Depression

129
Auditory hallucinations are most common in ____.

• Schizophrenia
• Posttraumatic stress disorder
• Bipolar disorder
• Dissociative identity disorder
• a. Schizophrenia

130
Believing you are the queen of England or Jesus
Christ would be a symptom called ____.

• Hallucinations
• Mania
• Delusions
• All of these options
• c. Delusions

131
Delusions, hallucinations and disorganized speech
are ____ symptoms of schizophrenia.

• Negative
• Positive
• Deficit
• Undifferentiated
• b. Positive

132
The frontal and temporal lobes appear to be less
active in some people with ____.

• Dissociative identity disorder
• Personality disorder
• Schizophrenia
• All of these options
• c. Schizophrenia

133
The prognosis for some people with schizophrenia
is better in ____.

• Nonindustrialized societies
• Families with expressed emotionality
• Stressful situations
• None of these options
• a. Nonindustrialized societies