Title: A previously healthy 38 yo male presents to your ER wit
1Tropical and Travel Seminar Review Questions
- Monday December 1st, 2008
2Bacteria, Fungi, and TB
3- A previously healthy 38 yo male presents to your
ER with fever x 5 days, significant shortness of
breath and cough without any significant coryza.
He just returned from rural New Mexico where he
joined a house building mission for poverty
stricken families with his church group. The
primary project was to renovate an old rural
house which was super-infested with rodents.
Vitals BP 72/30, a pulse of 45, RR 35, oxygen
saturation of 84 on room air. An EKG shows
sinus bradycardia. Echo shows depressed LVEF of
25, but normal valvular function and normal
chamber sizes. His CXR shown below. Rapid HIV is
negative and is not known to be immunocompromised
for any other reason. LFTs are normal, WBC 16k
with left shift, hgb 12, plt 98k, creatinine 1.7.
No PMHx, no medications, no drugs, no smoking or
alcohol use. The MOST LIKELY DIAGNOSIS is
A. Mycoplasma pneumonia B. Influenza pneumonia C.
Acute myocardial infarction D. Pneumocystis
jiroveci E. Sin Nombre virus(Hantavirus Pulmonary
Syndrome)
4- A 24 yo African American 30 weeks pregnant female
presents to your urgent care with flu-like
illness, with fever, cough, headache, rash and
muscle aches for the past 5 days. Today, she also
noticed red, swollen, somewhat painful nodules on
her shins. Her temperature is 38.8C, BP 128/82,
pulse 74, RR 26, O2 sats 88. She spent the last
summer overland trucking in Southern California.
Her route was Bakersfield, CA to Fresno, CA and
back. She returned to Minnesota to set up
primary obstetrics care and make sure the
impending delivery of her child would go
smoothly. She has never traveled outside the
country, has never been incarcerated, and had a
negative TB test last spring when she was working
as a nurses aide at a nursing home. Her CXR
showed a LUL infiltrate and chest CT showed a
cavitary lesion at the superior segment of the
LLL with diffuse reticulonodular lesions
throughout both lungs. Histopathology from
bronchial tissue bx was positive with What is
the most appropriate treatment choice for this
patient?
A. AZT 3TC nevirapine B. Ceftriaxone
azithromycin C. Amphotericin B D. Rifampin
ethambutol pyrazinamide isoniazide E.
Itraconazole
5- A 45 yo homeless Brazilian male with diet
controlled diabetes mellitus and HTN presents to
your office with chronic history of a dry
smokers cough, white mouth sores, and loosing
all his teeth. He was not going to see a doctor
until he started to develop nodules on his neck.
He denies any fever, chills, night sweats,
significant dyspnea. He emigrated from Brazil 15
years ago and has lived in Minnesota ever since.
His physical exam was significant for temperature
of 97.8, his mouth was edentulous and showed
white plaque like lesions diffusely over his
tongue Scrapings from his tongue showed What
would be the drug of choice for this condition?
A. Cefotaxime B. Itraconazole C. Ganciclovir D.
Rifampin ethambutol pyrazinamide
isoniazide E. Amphotericin B
6- An otherwise healthy 42-year-old Venezuelan
farmer returned to your yearly medical brigade
clinic to evaluate return of verrucous, keloidal
lesions on his left leg. A year ago he had a
similar but smaller(1 cm) lesion on his leg,
which was surgically removed and treated with
fluconazole due to presumed fungal infection. The
surgical wound healed well, but 6 months later
the lesions returned and have grown larger ever
since. Other than the lesion on his leg, the
physical examination were normal. Your biopsy
results show deep granulomatous dermatitis with
multinucleated giant cells. Intracellular and
extracellular unstained fungal cells stained
strongly with periodic acid-Schiff, Calcofluor
white, and Grocott methenamine silver stains.
The cells were spherical or lemon-shaped, chains
of cells of uniform size, 6- to 12-µm in
diameter, connected by thin tubelike isthmuses.
A. Coccidioides immitis B. Candida albicans C.
Blastomyces dermatitidis D. Lacazia
loboi(Lobomycosis) E. Leshmania donovani
7- While working on a plastic surgery mission in
Ghana, you encounter several young people with
chronic ulcerative lesions, each patient at
different stages of healing. An 18yo male shows
you a lesion on his ankle. He claims that his
lesion began as small laceration at the back of
his heel incurred while walking along the shore
of Lake Volta near his village. Over the next
week, he developed a group of firm, nontender,
nodules approximately 1-2 cm in diameter at the
site of the wound. Over the next 1-2 months, the
area became fluctuant, followed by the formation
of a painless, undermined ulcer. After hearing
about your mission, he traveled to see if you
could help. As the medical physician of the
group, you send a smear from the necrotic base of
the lesion for histology. Acid fast bacilli are
seen on Ziehl-Neelsen stain. On further
exploration of the wound under anesthesia, you
identify that the ulcer also affects the deep
tissues of the lower leg and foot. You make a
presumptive diagnosis and recommend which
treatment?
- BCG vaccine
- Ethambutol clarithromycin
- Rifampin
- Surgical excision of infected tissue with skin
graft closure
8- While working in Chiang Mai, Thailand, a 24yo
female commercial sex worker with known advanced
HIV/AIDS noted by a most recent CD4 count of 42
and previous infection with Pneumocystis
jiroveci. She presents to the ER with fever to
39C, pronounced weight loss, cough, and facial
skin papules with a central necrotic
umbilication. Other physical exam findings
include lymphadenopathy in inguinal, axillary,
and cervical distribution hepatomsplenomegaly.
Laboratory work up yields Hgb of 7.8, and
leukopenia of 3.2, no peripheral blasts are seen.
A bone marrow biopsy results are shown below.
What is the best diagnosis and treatment course?
- Amphotericin B IV for 2 weeks, followed by
itraconazole, 400 mg/day orally in two divided
doses for the next 10 weeks - Ethambutol clarithromycin
- Lifelong Itraconazole as secondary prophylaxis
- Fluconazole lifelong primary treatment and
secondary prophylaxis - Both A and C
9- A 24yo male presents to the ER after sustaining a
bite from a rat which has been seen living in the
sewer system around the neighborhood and
scavenging the garbage receptacles on his street.
The animal bit him on the forearm and ran away.
He has never been vaccinated against rabies in
the past. He asks you whether he needs to worry
about rabies. Which statement describes the most
appropriate action to take?
- Immediately administer RIG into the wound
- Immediately initiate human diploid cell rabies
vaccine post exposure prophylaxis - Thoroughly cleanse the wound with water and
povidone-iodine solution - Call local animal control to try and capture
animal for euthanization and medical examination
for rabies - All of the above
10- Same story but the animal is an otherwise healthy
neighborhood pit bull. Which statement describes
the most appropriate action to take?
- Immediately administer RIG into the wound
- Immediately initiate human diploid cell rabies
vaccine post exposure prophylaxis - Thoroughly cleanse the wound with water and
povidone-iodine solution - Call local animal control to try and capture
animal for euthanization and medical examination
for rabies - Reserve rabies postexposure prophylaxis only if
the animal demonstrates signs of rabies during a
10 day observation period - Both C E
- All of the above
11- Same story but the animal is the neighborhood
raccoon who scavenges on nearby garbage cans.
Which statement describes the most appropriate
action to take?
- Immediately administer RIG into the wound
- Immediately initiate human diploid cell rabies
vaccine post exposure prophylaxis - Thoroughly cleanse the wound with water and
povidone-iodine solution - Call local animal control to try and capture
animal for euthanization and medical examination
for rabies - Reserve rabies postexposure prophylaxis only if
the animal demonstrates signs of rabies during a
10 day observation period - A,B,C, D
- All of the above
12- Same story but the animal is a street dog
encountered during a trip to India. The dog
cannot be found. Which statement describes the
most appropriate action to take?
- Immediately administer RIG into the wound
- Immediately initiate human diploid cell rabies
vaccine post exposure prophylaxis - Thoroughly cleanse the wound with water and
povidone-iodine solution - Reserve rabies postexposure prophylaxis only if
the animal demonstrates signs of rabies during a
10 day observation period - A, B, C
- All of the above
13- A 29 yo otherwise healthy Sudanese male seen in a
refugee clinic in Chad presents with chronic
progressive lesions on his feet. About 5 months
ago, he noticed a small painless nodule on the
medial side of his left foot. Intermittently, he
has noticed odorous, purulent drainage containing
dark black granular specks draining from
eruptions in his foot. His foot has become
progressively more deformed with these lesions.
You perform a surgical biopsy, which reveals a
sinus full of purulent material containing
discrete black grains. You make a presumptive
diagnosis and recommend the following initial
treatment as most appropriate first choice
- Complete surgical amputation
- Streptomycin and cotrimoxazole
- C. Amphotericin B
- D. Rifampin ethambutol pyrazinamide
isoniazide - E. Ketoconazole
14- A 56 yo otherwise healthy African-American male
postal worker presents to the ER with abrupt
onset on dyspnea, stridor, and diaphoresis. His
wife tells you that he has had fever, malaise,
anorexia, sore throat, headache, and a dry cough
for the last 3 days. A CXR shows a widened
mediastinum and clear lung fields. A Chest CT
scan showed large mediastinal LN with
hemorrhages. You make a presumptive diagnosis
and recommend the following initial treatment?
- Surgical mediastinotomy
- Penicillin V
- C. Amphotericin B
- D. Heparin IV therapeutic drip
- E. TMP/SMX
15- A 23yo female who is 20 weeks pregnant comes to
your office requesting advice about toxoplamosis.
She was freaked out by her friend who scolded
her for taking care of her cats litter box since
she has been pregnant. Aside from some mild
morning sickness experienced for a 7 days at her
12th week of pregnancy, she has not felt ill at
all. Which of the following statements is true
regarding toxoplasmosis and pregnancy?
- The risk of vertical transmission to fetus is
highest if acute infection occurs in the first
trimester. - The risk of vertical transmission to fetus is
highest if acute infection occurs in the third
trimester. - C. The severity of congenital infection in fetus
is highest if acute infection occurs in the first
trimester. - D. The severity of congenital infection in fetus
is highest if acute infection occurs in the third
trimester. - Both B C
- Both A D
16- The same 23yo female who is now 21 weeks pregnant
was referred to your clinic for workup of
toxoplasmosis infection after an ultrasound
demonstrated a fetus with symmetric IUGR. Her
initial serology results showed IgM positive and
IgG negative. Which interpretation of maternal
serologies is the most accurate true?
- Possible acute infection or false-positive IgM
result. Obtain a new specimen for IgG and IgM
testing. If results from the second specimen
remain the same, the IgM reaction is probably a
false-positive. - Definite acute infection, treat the mother to
prevent congenital infection - No serologic evidence for infection with T.
gondii - D. Perform amniocentesis to evaluate for fetal
infection.
17- The same pregnant 23yo female returns to your
clinc for repeat testing given the initial
results. Which interpretation of the repeat
maternal serologies is true?
- Positive IgM, Negative IgG ? definite acute
infection - Negative IgM, Positive IgG ? definite acute
infection in the last 2 months - Positive IgM, Positive IgG ? acute infection in
the last 12 months - Negative IgM, negative IgG ? false negatives,
test via an alternative method
18Interpretation of maternal T. gondii serologies
in pregnancy
19Risk of transplacental transmission of T. gondii
by gestational age of pregnancy
20- A 35yo male presents to the clinic with fever,
headache, and rash. Four days after returning
from a 4 week house building mission in Brazil,
he develops a fever to 104F, and severe frontal
headache which radiates behind the eyes. - Over the last 24 hours, he developed diffuse
body aches, nausea, anorexia, and a diffuse
rash. He always drank bottled water, and ate
sufficiently cooked foods. No reported
alteration in his bowel movements, but his urine
seems red. He remembers being bitten by many
mosquitoes during the day and the night. The
skin shows focal petechiae and diffuse
erythematous warm rash which leaves a residual
blanched area after pressing on his skin. His
rapid influenza antigen is negative, blood smear
shows no parasites. Platelet count is 10k, Hct
is 60, serum albumin 2.1. Which test is most
likely to lead to a diagnosis?
- Dengue serologies
- West Nile virus serologies
- Send stool for routine bacterial pathogens
- Japanese encephalitis serologies
21- A 35yo male soldier working at an army base in
Kuwait presents with a 6 day h/o tactile fevers,
headache, and myalagias. Three days ago, he
developed some shortness of breath, cough, and a
single skin ulcer which began as painful with a
yellow base and later turned into a black eschar
on his hand. No ecchymoses or spontaneous
bleeding is identified on history or physical
exam. Which diagnosis is the most likely
A.Tularemia B. Polio C. Varicella(chicken
pox) D. Varicalla(shingles) E. Melioidosis
22- While working in a large hospital in Vientienne,
Laos, you encounter an 18yo female who presents
to the ER with rapid onset of severe HA, high
fever, neck stiffness, stupor, disorientation,
and spasticity. No history of exposure to
animals. Many mosquito are present around her
village. In the ER, she has a generalized
tonic-clonic seizure. Her fever is 103F. Her
neurology exma shows lower extremity spastic
paralysis. Head CT shows no intracranial
pathology. Brain MRI shows preferential
inflammation of the grey matter without white
matter involvement. HIV test negative. His WBC
is 15k. CSF shows an elevated opening pressure,
mild pleocytosis with lymphocyte predominence,
elevated protein, normal glucose, and no PMNs or
organisms on gram stain. Which test is most
likely to lead to a quick diagnosis?
- Dengue serologies
- West Nile virus serologies
- Cryptococcal serum antigen
- India Ink test on CSF
- Japanese encephalitis serologies on CSF and blood
23Parasitology Images
2419-year-old male from Louisiana travels to SE
Asia, and presents with abdominal complaints.
Stool Trichrome has
- Ascaris
- Hookworm
- Opisthorchiasis
- Strongyloides
25- A concentrate formalin-ethyl acetate technique of
a stool specimen was preserved in formalin. The
objects measured approximately 300 mm in length.
What is your diagnosis? - Ancylostoma duodenale
- Necator americanus
- Hookworm unknown species
- Strongyloides stercoralis
2619-year-old male from Louisiana with no known
travel history presented with a one-month history
of headache, fatigue, shortness of breath and
weight-loss. CXR showed bilateral pleural
effusions with an infiltrate in the left lung.
Bronchial alveolar lavage (BAL) and sputum showed
- Ascaris
- Hookworm
- Paragonimus
- Strongyloides
27A survey was conducted to determine the
prevalence of geohelminth infections in
school-age children living in Haiti. The
laboratory aspect of the survey consisted of
processing stool specimens which were collected
in 10 formalin. Per protocol, the processing
included performing an FEA formalin-ethyl acetate
concentration and examination of a wet mount.
What is this?
- Cyclospora
- Isospora
- Schistosoma
- Trichuris
- Plant Pollen
50 mm
28A survey was conducted to determine the
prevalence of geohelminth infections in
school-age children living in Haiti. The
laboratory aspect of the survey consisted of
processing stool specimens which were collected
in 10 formalin. Per protocol, the processing
included performing an FEA formalin-ethyl acetate
concentration and examination of a wet mount.
What is this?
- Cyclospora
- Isospora
- Schistosoma
- Trichuris
- Plant Pollen
50 mm
29- A woman found a worm in her laundry basket and
contacted the health department. She reported
small children in the household, as well as dogs
and cats. Eggs were removed from the worm and
stained. What worm is this? - Ascaris
- Hookworm
- Taenia
- Toxocara
- Delusional parasitosis
iodine-stained wet mount
100 mm
30A 29-year-old Peace Corp volunteer returned to
the United States from Malawi with symptoms that
included mild gastrointestinal cramping and
intermittent blood in his urine. A urine wet
mount is performed. This is
- Schistosoma hematobium
- S. intercalatum
- S. japonicum
- S. mansoni
- S. mekongi
- Plant pollen
100 mm
31A 29-year-old Peace Corp volunteer returned to
the United States from Malawi with symptoms that
included mild gastrointestinal cramping and
intermittent blood in his urine. This is
- Schistosoma hematobium
- S. intercalatum
- S. japonicum
- S. mansoni
- S. mekongi
- Plant pollen
100 mm
32A friend of the Peace Corp volunteer returning
from elsewhere has vague abdominal symptoms and
submits a specimen. This is
- Schistosoma hematobium
- S. intercalatum
- S. japonicum
- S. mansoni
- S. mekongi
- Plant pollen
100 mm
33A second friend of the Peace Corp volunteer
returning from Cameron has vague abdominal
symptoms and submits a specimen. They submit a
stool specimen. This is
- Schistosoma hematobium
- S. intercalatum
- S. japonicum
- S. mansoni
- S. mekongi
- Plant pollen
34A thick blood smear stained with hematoxylin from
an adult male from Cameroon.Which ones are not
possible?
- Brugia malayi
- Loa loa
- Mansonella ozzardi
- Mansonella perstans
- Mansonella streptocerca
- Onchocerca volvulus
- Wuchereria bancrofti
35A thick blood smear stained with hematoxylin from
an adult male from Cameroon.Which filariasis is
this?
230-250 µm long The tail is tapered and nuclei
extend to the tip of the tail.
- Loa loa
- Mansonella perstans
- Onchocerca volvulus
- Wuchereria bancrofti
36A thick blood smear stained with hematoxylin from
an adult male from Cameroon.Which filariasis is
the smaller one?
- Brugia malayi
- Loa loa dimunata
- Mansonella perstans
- Onchocerca volvulus
- Wuchereria bancrofti
smaller microfilaria , 190-200 µm No sheath blunt
tail filled with nuclei to the tip
37Images were taken from a thick blood smear
stained with hematoxylin from an unknown country.
- Loa loa
- Mansonella perstans
- Onchocerca volvulus
- Wuchereria bancrofti
Cells loosely packed, Cells do not extend to the
tip of the tail
38A 45-year-old immigrant from Mexico was admitted
to the hospital after experiencing headaches,
fever, pulmonary symptoms, and adenopathy.
- Brugia malayi
- Loa loa
- Mansonella ozzardi
- Mansonella perstans
- Mansonella streptocerca
- Onchocerca volvulus
- Wuchereria bancrofti
180 mm length
3940yo F with complaints of abdominal pain and
diarrhea. The symptoms began one week after
attending a social function where she ate only
dessert with fruit punch. Stool exam via
- All objects are 9 µm in diameter
- Giardia intestinalis
- Cryptosporidium parvum
- Cyclospora cayetanensis
- Ascaris lumbricoides
40- A laboratory in one of the U.S. Trust territories
in the Pacific Islands reported Entamoeba
histolytica amebiasis in the stool specimens of
patients with bloody diarrhea. The laboratory
made their diagnosis from unstained wet mounts.
What should be the next course of action? - A. Treat for E. histolytica infection
- B. Send a team to the island to investigate the
outbreak - C. Confirm amebiasis at a reference lab
- D. Obtain water samples to examine for E.
histolytica
41A 45-year-old female noticed a long, worm-like
object in her stool.
- Ascaris lumbrocoides
- Diphyllobothrium latum
- Taenia solium
- Taenia saginatum
- Ingested rubber bands
42A 45-year-old female noticed a long, worm-like
object in her stool.
- Ascaris lumbrocoides
- Taenia solium
- Taenia saginatum
- Taenia species NOS
- Toxocara canis
43An 18-year-old woman sought medical attention due
to a painful lesion between her toes. She
reported travel to Africa.
- Tinea pedis
- Taenia pedis
- Taenia solium
- Tunga penetrans
500 mm
44A call from the lab, this is
- Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
- Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
- Trypanosoma brucei complex, unknown subspecies
- Trypanosoma cruzi
45A call from the lab, this is
- Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
- Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
- Trypanosoma cruzi
46Trypanosoma spp.
kinetoplast
T. Brucei T. cruzi
477yo, previously healthy child developed flu-like
symptoms and rapidly progressive bulbar palsy,
coma, and eventually death. Imaging revealed
florid ventriculitis. Autopsy revealed
granulomatous encephalitis with mixed
inflammatory, occasional giant cells,
peri-vascular in location.
487yo, previously healthy child developed flu-like
symptoms and rapidly progressive bulbar palsy,
coma, and eventually death. Imaging revealed
florid ventriculitis. Autopsy revealed
granulomatous encephalitis with mixed
inflammatory, occasional giant cells,
peri-vascular in location.
- Balamuthia mandrillaris
- Herpes HSV-1
- Influenza
- Naegleria fowleri
- Toxoplasma gondii
49Of the 4 causes of amebic encephalitis, which
does not form cysts in tissue?
- Acanthamoeba
- Balamuthia
- Naegleria
- Sappinia
50Vaccinology and Pre-travel Counselling
51Excluding pre-existing disease, the most common
cause of death in travelers to tropical countries
is
- Malaria
- Typhoid Fever
- Homicide
- Accidental Injury
52A 27yo woman who is 15 weeks pregnant seeks
pre-travel counseling prior to a 5-week trip to
Kenya in which she will spend 2 weeks on safari.
Regarding counseling for malaria prophylaxis, you
should recommend
- Delaying or canceling the trip until after
delivery, since no antimalarials are safe in
pregancy - Atovaquone/proguanil
- Mefloquine
- Doxycycline
- Chloroquine
53In two months a family in your office will be
going on a two month missionary trip to rural
northeastern Kenya. Vaccinations for their 3
month-old son should include
- Yellow Fever, Hep A, Hep B, JE Vaccine,
Meningococcal vaccine, IPV, MMR, Varicella - Hep A, Hep B, IPV
- Yellow Fever, Hep A, Hep B, IPV, Meningoccal
vaccine, MMR, Injectable typhoid - No vaccinations because he is too young
54A 58yo Hmong male who has a history of depression
and post-traumatic stress disorder seeks
counseling prior to a 2-month visit to family
remaining in rural Laos. Pre-travel
recommendations could include all of the
following EXCEPT
- Japanese Encephalitis Vaccine
- Doxycycline for malaria prophylaxis
- Mefloquine for malaria prophylaxis
- Oral Typhoid Vaccine
- Azithromycin for travelers diarrhea treatment
55A 35yo Egyptian male is planning on traveling to
the Hajj in Mecca. He asks questions about the
Menactra (quadrivalent conjugated meningococcal
vaccine). Which is NOT true about Menactra?
- Menactra covers strain B.
- Menactra covers strains A and C.
- Menactra covers strains W135 and Y.
- Menactra likely lasts for gt10 years.
- Can be used safely for asplenic patients if
inidicated - The embassy of Saudi Arabia mandates proof of
vaccination prior to travel to the Haaj.
56A 23yo HIV positive female presents for pretravel
advice prior to traveling to Nigeria for Peace
Corps work. She is currently taking HAART
medications and her CD4 count is 850. She
remembers that the last vaccination she received
was the tetanus booster at age 11 years. She
claims that she received all the recommended
pediatric immunizations while growing up in
Chicago, Illinois including 5 doses of DtaP, 4
doses of oral polio vaccine, 2 doses of MMR
vaccine, two doses of varicella vaccine. Which
vaccination is NOT recommended?
- MMR
- Influenza, trivalent inactivated vaccine
- Meningococcal conjugated vaccine
- Diphtheria, Tetanus, and acellular pertussis
booster - Yellow fever vaccine
57Vaccines
- Live Attenuated
- MMR
- OPV
- Yellow Fever
- Vaccinia
- Varicella
- Nasal Flu
- BCG
- Cholera
- Oral Typhoid
- Inactivated
- IPV
- JE Virus
- Hep A and B
- Influenza
- Acellular Pertussis
- HPV
- Pure Polysaccharide
- Pneumovax (23-valent)
- Meningoccal
- Injectable Typhoid
- Conjugated Polysaccharide
- HIB
- PCV-7
- Menactra
58You are about to leave the office, when you get a
call that a patient you saw yesterday is having a
rash and swelling of his lips. He is wondering
if this could be a vaccine side-effect. He
received first doses of all the recommended
vaccines for a 6 month backpacking trip through
India, Cambodia, Laos, China, and Vietnam. Which
vaccine is the most likely culprit?
- TdaP booster
- Yellow Fever
- Oral Typhoid
- JE Vaccine
- Hepatitis A
59You are counseling a 20 year-old student studying
abroad for a semester and staying with a
host-family. In which area will Chloroquine be
effective malaria prophylaxis?
- Guatemala
- Kenya
- Cambodia
- Colombia
- Peru
60You are doing a new arrival screen on a 32
year-old Somali woman who has been in the U.S.
for 6 months. She received BCG vaccination as a
young child, and her PPD placed in clinic
measures 16mm induration. According to the CDC
you should recommend
- Repeat PPD in 1 year
- Follow chest x-ray annually and work-up further
for TB if there are any changes - Start treatment with triple-drug therapy now
(INH, Rifampin, and pyrizinamide - Treat with single-drug therapy (INH)
- Do nothing
61Marine Medicine
62A 47 yo male vacationing in Mexico develops
flushing, nausea, vomiting, pruritus, urticaria,
and bronchospasm minutes after consuming a fish
dinner. His symptoms are most likely due to a
toxin that
- Blocks Na channels
- Converts histadine to histamine
- Converts nitrogen to histamine
- Blocks glutamate
-
63Review of Marine Toxins
- Fish related toxic syndromes
- Scrombroid
- Produced by albacore, tuna, wahoo, mackerel,
skipjack, bonito, mahi-mahi (worldwide
distribution). - Toxin production Bacteria within the fish
transform histidine to histamine. - Onset rapid (minutes).
- Treat with antihistamines, antiemetics
- Tetrodotoxin
- Produced by puffer fish, "fugu," porcupine fish
(tropical and subtropical). - Toxin is a Na channel blocker, also blocks
axonal transmission. - Onset minutes to hours.
- Symptoms include paresthesias of lip and tongue,
hypersalivation, weakness, ataxia, tremor,
dysphagia, seizure, bronchospasm, hypotension,
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, death. - Treat with gastric lavage/charcoal, ionotropes,
anticholinesterases
64Review of Marine Toxins
- Algae bloom related toxic syndromes
- Ciguatera
- Tropical and semitropical reef fish such as
barracuda, grouper, snapper, jack. - Ciguatoxin, maitotoxin, GT1-4, palytoxin produced
by algae Na channel blockers. - Onset 2-6 hours.
- Symptoms generally gastroenteritis followed by
neurologic symptoms dysesthesias, hot/cold
reversal, weakness, respiratory paralysis. - Supportive care, ? benefit with mannitol.
- Others related to shellfish
- Paralytic shellfish poisoning, amnestic shellfish
poisoning (toxin glutamate antagonist),
neurotoxic shellfish poisoning, diarrheal
shellfish poisoning.
65A 23 yo scuba diver in Australia is stung by a
box jellyfish. After rinsing the lesion with
saltwater, what is the most appropriate
management?
- Urinate on the sting.
- Start systemic steroids and use local lidocaine
for pain control. - Remove nematocysts by using shaving cream/sand
paste and then shaving with sharp edged object. - Soak the sting in acetic acid, wrap the area as
you would a snake bite, then treat with
antivenom.
66Review of Jellyfish Stings
- Box jellyfish
- Most lethal, found only in Australia.
- Clinical symptoms frosted looking lesions with
secondary blistering followed by necrosis.
Incapacitating muscle spasm, parasympathetic
overstimulation with cardiopulmonary arrest. - Immediately rinse with saltwater followed by
soaking in vinegar for at least 30 min. Wrap
affected extremity as in snake bites. ANTIVENOM
available in Australia. - Sea anemones/coral, Portugese man of war, true
jellyfish other than box - Widespread, no antivenom available.
- Treat locally - immediately rinse with seawater.
DO NOT RUB. Soak in acetic acid to prevent
nematocyte discharge, then remove nematocysts by
using shaving cream/sand paste and then shaving. - Dont forget tetanus prophylaxis!
67What is the treatment of choice for a Sting Ray
Sting?
- Soaking in water 37-40?C
- Soaking in water as hot as tolerable
- Anti-histamine
- CroFab Anti-venom
- Acetic Acid irrigation of the wound
68What vitamin deficiency is associated with these
skin findings?
- Vitamin A
- Iron
- Vitamin B1
- Vitamin B3
69A 9 year old malnourished boy presents with
shortness of breath and confusion. On exam, he
is found to have bilateral rales, elevated JVD,
and significant LE edema. Deficiency of what
vitamin is most likely responsible for his
symptoms?
- A. Vitamin B1
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Vitamin B12
- D. Vitamin E
-
70Review of B vitamin defiencies
- Vitamin B1
- AKA thiamine
- Found in unrefined cereals, fresh meat, legumes,
green vegetables, and milk. - Look for deficiency in those subsisting on
polished white rice. - Deficiency leads to weight loss, change in mental
status, impaired sensation, weakness and pain in
the limbs, edema ? heart failure (beriberi). - Vitamin B3
- AKA niacin
- Found in dairy products, poultry, fish, lean
meats, nuts, and eggs. - Look for deficiency in those subsisting on corn
based diets. - Deficiency leads to the 4 Ds diarrhea,
dermatitis, dementia, death pellagra - Vitamin B12
- Found only in animal products.
- Can also have deficiency related to malabsorption
(pernicious anemia). - Deficiency results in subacute combined
degeneration of the spinal cord, dementia/change
in mental status, megaloblastic anemia.
71A young child has diminished night vision and
this finding on exam. What is the etiology of his
symptoms?
- Trachoma
- Vitamin A deficiency
- Congenital CMV infection
- Protein malnutrition
72Vitamin A deficiency
- Foods with high levels liver, beef, chicken,
eggs, fortified milk, carrots, mangoes, sweet
potatoes, and leafy green vegetables. - First signs abnormal visual adaptation to
darkness, dry skin, dry hair, broken fingernails,
and decreased resistance to infections. - Can progress to blindness.
- For severe disease treat with 60,000 mcg (200,000
IU) PO for at least 2 d.
73What is the treatment of choice for high-altitude
pulmonary edema (HAPE)?
- Immediately descend at least 500 feet, use O2,
and start acetazolamide. - Stop ascent and start acetazolamide.
- Slow rate of ascent and use O2 and furosemide or
other diuretic for symptomatic improvement. - Immediately descend at least 2000 feet, use O2
and start nifedipine.
74Review of High Altitude Illness
- Categories
- Acute mountain sickness (AMS)
- Headache, plus at least one of the following
Fatigue or weakness, GI sx, dizziness or
lightheadedness, difficulty sleeping - High-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE)
- At least two of the following Dyspnea at rest,
cough, weakness or decreased exercise
performance, chest pain/congestion - PLUS at least two of the following signs Central
cyanosis , rales or wheezing in at least one lung
field, tachypnea, tachycardia - High-altitude cerebral edema (HACE)
- Either the presence of a change in mental status
and/or ataxia in a person with AMS or the
presence of both mental status changes and ataxia
in a person without AMS
75Review of High Altitude Illness
- Treatment
- Acute mountain sickness (AMS)
- Stop ascent, acclimatize at the same altitude and
give acetazolamide (Diamox), 125 to 250 mg orally
two times a day. - OR descend 460 m (1,500 ft) or more until
symptoms have resolved. - High-altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE)
- Descend at least 610 m (2,000 ft) and keep
descending until the symptoms have resolved. - Other measures oxygen, nifedipine, keep the
person warm and minimize exertion, use a Gamow or
Chamberlite bag for hyperbaric therapy if
available. - High-altitude cerebral edema (HACE)
- Descend at least 610 m (2,000 ft) and keep
descending until symptoms have resolved. - If that is impossible, temporize with oxygen
give dexamethasone hyperbaric therapy if
possible.
76Which of the following are absolute
contraindications for high altitude travel?
- Seizure disorders not controlled on medication
- Sleep apnea
- Sickle cell disease
- High-risk pregnancy
77Contraindications for High Altitude Travel
- Contraindications Uncompensated congestive heart
failure Pulmonary hypertension Sickle cell
anemia Severe COPD - Cautions Compensated congestive heart failure
Troublesome arrhythmias Sickle cell trait
Moderate COPD Seizure disorders (not controlled
on medication) Stable angina or coronary artery
disease Sleep apnea High-risk pregnancy
78A mail sorter presents to the ER with fever,
shortness of breath, nonproductive cough,
myalgias and chest pain. CXR demonstrates
mediastinal widening and bilateral pleural
effusions. This presentation is most consistent
with infection with what bioterrorism agent?
- A. Yersinia pestis (Pneumonic plague)
- B. Francisella tularensis (Tularemia)
- C. Bacillus anthracis (Anthrax)
- D. Burkholderia mallei (Glanders)
79Choose an antibiotic that can be used to treat
this condition.
- Ciprofloxacin
- Metronidazole
- Trimethoprim/Sulfa
- Ceftriaxone
80Anthrax
- Encapsulated, aerobic, gram-positive,
spore-forming, rod-shaped bacterium. - Cutaneous, inhalational, GI, oropharyngeal.
- Symptoms of inhalational disease flu like sx
progressing to respiratory distress, death in
24-48 hours. - CXR mediastinal widening, pleural effusion,
rarely infiltrates. - Ciprofloxacin, doxycycline and penicillin all FDA
approved for treatment - Do NOT use TMP/sulfa or extended spectrum
cephalosporins due to resistance.
81How would you manage an individual who has had
direct contact with a patient with confirmed
pneumonic plague?
- Treat with ciprofloxacin.
- Treat with streptomycin.
- Quarantine only.
- Treat with inhaled tobramycin.
82Plague
- Pneumonic plague occurs when Y. pestis infects
the lungs - can spread from person to person
through the air. - Clinical symptoms fever, headache, weakness, and
rapidly developing pneumonia with SOB, chest
pain, cough, /- bloody sputum. - Treat EARLY with streptomycin, gentamicin, the
tetracyclines, and chloramphenicol. - Also treat close contacts within 7 days.
83Choose 2 features that distinguish smallpox from
chickenpox.
- In smallpox, there is a predominance of lesions
on face and extremities rather than on the trunk. - In smallpox, lesions develop at different stages
and come in crops. - In smallpox, lesions are all at the same stage of
development. - In smallpox, lesions do not scab.
84Smallpox
- Incubation 7-17 days.
- Starts with prodrome malaise, fever, rigors,
vomiting, headache, backache, confusion - Then rash develops looks like chickenpox except
- Smallpox lesions can be seen on palms and soles.
- Smallpox lesions are more deeply imbedded in the
dermis. - There is no treatment.
85TTM Review QuestionsMalaria
- December 1, 2008
- Ann Settgast, MD, DTMH
86Which of these patients presenting to your clinic
with fever is most likely to have infection with
P. falciparum?
- 42 y/o Liberian refugee who arrived in the US 12
months ago and has not traveled since - 42 y/o American 6 months after returning from
working with an NGO in Liberia (no malaria
prophylaxis used) - 42 y/o Liberian living in the US who returned
from visiting relatives in Liberia one week ago
(given malaria prophylaxis by primary MD) - 42 y/o American one week after returning from a
one-month trip to Morocco (no malaria
prophylaxis)
87Which of these patients presenting to your clinic
with fever is most likely to have infection with
P. falciparum?
- 42 y/o Liberian refugee who arrived in the US 12
months ago and has not traveled since - 42 y/o American 6 months after returning from
working with an NGO in Liberia (no malaria
prophylaxis used) - 42 y/o Liberian living in the US who returned
from visiting relatives in Liberia one week ago
(given malaria prophylaxis by primary MD) - 42 y/o American one week after returning from a
one-month trip to Morocco (no malaria
prophylaxis)
88Which of the following blood smear slides reveals
evidence of Plasmodium falciparum malaria?
- You may choose one or more than one.
89A
B
C
90How will you treat this Liberian VFR patient if
she has uncomplicated P. falciparum malaria
(taking po easily)?
- A. Primaquine phosphate 30 mg base daily for 14
days - B. Oral quinine sulfate 650 mg salt tid
doxycycline 100 mg bid for 3 days - C. Malarone (atovaquone/proguanil) 1 tablet daily
for 3 days - D. Chloroquine phosphate 600 mg (base) now
followed by 300 mg at 6, 24, and 48 hours
91How will you treat this Liberian VFR patient if
she has uncomplicated P. falciparum malaria
(taking po easily)?
- A. Primaquine phosphate 30 mg base daily for 14
days - B. Oral quinine sulfate 650 mg salt tid
doxycycline 100 mg bid for 3 days - C. Malarone (atovaquone/proguanil) 1 tablet daily
for 3 days - D. Chloroquine phosphate 600 mg (base) now
followed by 300 mg at 6, 24, and 48 hours
92You are the night float at Regions Hospital
admitting a patient who has just returned from
Tanzania with severe malaria. What is the
treatment of choice?
- A. IV quinidine gluconate loading dose followed
by infusion - B. Malarone (atovaquone-proguanil)
- C. IV artesunate doxycycline
- D. IV quinidine gluconate loading dose followed
by infusion doxycycline
93You are the night float at Regions Hospital
admitting a patient who has just returned from
Tanzania with severe malaria. What is the
treatment of choice?
- A. IV quinidine gluconate loading dose followed
by infusion - B. Malarone (atovaquone-proguanil)
- C. IV artesunate doxycycline
- D. IV quinidine gluconate loading dose followed
by infusion doxycycline
94 IV quinidine is on the Regions Hospital
formulary, but not always in stock. While
awaiting its arrival from another local hospital,
what could you use as a temporizing measure?
- IV vancomycin gentamicin
- Mefloquine via NGT
- Quinine via NGT IV clindamycin
- IV ceftriaxone
- Zosyn
95 IV quinidine is on the Regions Hospital
formulary, but not always in stock. While
awaiting its arrival from another local hospital,
what could you use as a temporizing measure?
- IV vancomycin gentamicin
- Mefloquine via NGT
- Quinine via NGT IV clindamycin
- IV ceftriaxone
- Zosyn
96Which life-threatening complication during
malaria treatment w/ quinidine are you least
likely to see?
- Pulmonary embolus
- Hypotension
- Hypoglycemia
- Cardiac arrhythmia
97Which life-threatening complication during
malaria treatment w/ quinidine are you least
likely to see?
- Pulmonary embolus
- Hypotension
- Hypoglycemia
- Cardiac arrhythmia
98You are seeing a 45 y/o male patient with
recurrent fevers, diagnosed w/ P. vivax malaria
(backpacked across India a few years ago). How
will you treat him?
- Malarone 4 tablets daily x 3 days plus primaquine
treatment to eradicate the hypnozoite stage
(after G6PD testing) - Mefloquine 750 mg salt followed by 500 mg 12
hours later plus primaquine treatment to
eradicate the hypnozoite stage (after G6PD
testing) - Chloroquine phosphate 600 mg base followed by 300
mg at 6, 24, and 48 hours - Chloroquine phosphate 600 mg base followed by 300
mg at 6, 24, and 48 hours plus primaquine
treatment to eradicate the hypnozoite stage
(after G6PD testing)
99You are seeing a 45 y/o male patient with
recurrent fevers, diagnosed w/ P. vivax malaria
(backpacked across India a few years ago). How
will you treat him?
- Malarone 4 tablets daily x 3 days plus primaquine
treatment to eradicate the hypnozoite stage
(after G6PD testing) - Mefloquine 750 mg salt followed by 500 mg 12
hours later plus primaquine treatment to
eradicate the hypnozoite stage (after G6PD
testing) - Chloroquine phosphate 600 mg base followed by 300
mg at 6, 24, and 48 hours - Chloroquine phosphate 600 mg base followed by 300
mg at 6, 24, and 48 hours plus primaquine
treatment to eradicate the hypnozoite stage
(after G6PD testing)
100Plasmodium vivax
101How would your management of P. vivax change if
the patient in the last scenario were a pregnant
female?
- Malarone 4 tablets daily x 3 days plus primaquine
treatment to eradicate the hypnozoite stage
(after G6PD testing) - Mefloquine 750 mg salt followed by 500 mg 12
hours later plus primaquine treatment to
eradicate the hypnozoite stage (after G6PD
testing) - Chloroquine phosphate 600 mg base followed by 300
mg at 6, 24, and 48 hours - Chloroquine phosphate 600 mg base followed by 300
mg at 6, 24, and 48 hours plus primaquine
treatment to eradicate the hypnozoite stage
(after G6PD testing)
102How would your management of P. vivax change if
the patient in the last scenario were a pregnant
female?
- Malarone 4 tablets daily x 3 days plus primaquine
treatment to eradicate the hypnozoite stage
(after G6PD testing) - Mefloquine 750 mg salt followed by 500 mg 12
hours later plus primaquine treatment to
eradicate the hypnozoite stage (after G6PD
testing) - Chloroquine phosphate 600 mg base followed by 300
mg at 6, 24, and 48 hours - Chloroquine phosphate 600 mg base followed by 300
mg at 6, 24, and 48 hours plus primaquine
treatment to eradicate the hypnozoite stage
(after G6PD testing)
103You are providing pre-travel advice to a 24 y/o
American male with epilepsy (well-controlled on
phenytoin). He is going to work in Haiti with an
NGO for 4 months. What will you recommend for
malaria prophylaxis?
- Doxycycline 100 mg daily begun one day prior to
travel and continued for four weeks after return - Chloroquine 500 mg weekly begun one week prior to
travel and continued for four weeks after return - Mefloquine 250 mg weekly begun one week prior to
travel and continued for four weeks after return - Malarone one tablet daily begun one day prior to
travel and continued for one week after return
104You are providing pre-travel advice to a 24 y/o
American male with epilepsy (well-controlled on
phenytoin). He is going to work in Haiti with an
NGO for 4 months. What will you recommend for
malaria prophylaxis?
- Doxycycline 100 mg daily begun one day prior to
travel and continued for four weeks after return - Chloroquine 500 mg weekly begun one week prior to
travel and continued for four weeks after return - Mefloquine 250 mg weekly begun one week prior to
travel and continued for four weeks after return - Malarone one tablet daily begun one day prior to
travel and continued for one week after return
105You are advising a 12-week pregnant Somali female
regarding malaria prevention for her upcoming
trip to visit relatives in Kenya (Nairobi rural
areas). Which medication would you prescribe?
- Doxycycline
- Malarone
- Chloroquine
- Mefloquine
106You are advising a 12-week pregnant Somali female
regarding malaria prevention for her upcoming
trip to visit relatives in Kenya (Nairobi rural
areas). Which medication would you prescribe?
- Doxycycline
- Malarone
- Chloroquine
- Mefloquine
107Your last patient of the day in travel clinic is
a 28 y/o U of M resident going to spend two
months in Chiang Mai, Thailand for an
international rotation. She will be traveling
throughout Thailand and Cambodia during her stay.
What drug will you recommend for malaria
prevention?
- Malarone
- Doxycycline
- Mefloquine
- Chloroquine
108Your last patient of the day in travel clinic is
a 28 y/o U of M resident going to spend two
months in Chiang Mai, Thailand for an
international rotation. She will be traveling
throughout Thailand and Cambodia during her stay.
What drug will you recommend for malaria
prevention?
- Malarone
- Doxycycline
- Mefloquine
- Chloroquine
109Which lab test is useful for diagnosing a patient
with splenomegaly with HMS (hyperactive malarial
splenomegaly)?
- Thick and thin blood smear for malaria.
- CBC looking for thrombocytopenia eosinophilia
- Total malaria IgM antibody level
- Rapid diagnostic card test for malaria
110Which lab test is useful for diagnosing a patient
with splenomegaly with HMS (hyperactive malarial
splenomegaly)?
- Thick and thin blood smear for malaria.
- CBC looking for thrombocytopenia eosinophilia
- Total malaria IgM antibody level
- Rapid diagnostic card test for malaria
111Treatment?
- Splenectomy
- Chemotherapy for malignancy
- Antimalarial drugs specific choice is based on
the pattern and prevalence of drug resistance in
the patient's geographic area. In endemic areas,
treatment should be prolonged and continued
regularly.
112HIV in the Tropics -Questions
113Question 1 34 yo male HIV, newly diagnosed
presents to healthcare.To determine whether HIV
antiretroviral medications are needed, most
developing country programs base need for ARVs
on
- History and Physical
- CD4 Count
- HIV Viral Load
- All of the Above
114Question 2
- At which WHO clinical stage is HIV therapy
typically started in developing countries? - Stage 1
- Stage 2
- Stage 3
- Stage 4
115Question 3
- First Line HIV therapy is generally provided from
either PEPFAR or the Global Fund sources. - Which one of the following is not a first line
regimen? - stavudine, lamivudine, nevirapine (d4T / 3TC /
NVP) - zidovudine, lamivudine, efavirenz (AZT / 3TC /
EFV) - tenofovir, emtricitabine, lopinavir/ritonavir
(TDF/FTC/ LPVr)
116Question 4
- With d4T / 3TC / NVP )stavudine, lamivudine,
nevirapine) - Which of the following is NOT a common side
effect? - Hepatotoxicity
- Hypersensitivity rash
- Lactic Acidosis
- Neuropathy
- Pancreatitis
- Renal Insufficiency
117ART Toxicities
- d4T / 3TC / NVP
- stavudine, lamivudine, nevirapine
- Which of the following is NOT a common side
effect? - Hepatotoxicity (NVP) early women,CD4gt250
- Hypersensitivity rash (NVP) 25 early 14 day
lead in - Lactic Acidosis (d4T) 0.5-1
- Neuropathy (d4T) 40 switch rate in 3 yrs
- Pancreatitis (d4T, ddI) 1-7
- Renal Insufficiency (TDF)
118Question 5
- AZT / 3TC / EFV
- zidovudine, lamivudine, efavirenz
- Which of the following are NOT a common side
effect? - Anemia
- Cardiomyopathy
- Hypersensitivity reaction
- Neuropsychiatric exacerbations
- Insomnia / Vivid thoughts
119Toxicities
- AZT / 3TC / EFV
- zidovudine, lamivudine, efavirenz
- Which of the following are NOT a common side
effect? - Anemia (AZT) 10
- Cardiomyopathy (AZT) 5
- Hypersensitivity reaction (Abacavir) HLA B5701
- Neuropsychiatric exacerbations (EFV) common
- Insomnia / Vivid thoughts (EFV) common
120Bonus Images
121An 8-year-old child was taken to a hospital with
fever, hepatomegaly, and persistent cough. The
child commonly eats dirt. A liver biopsy was
performed.
- Capillaria hepatica
- Entamoeba histolytica
- Isospora belli
- Schistosoma mansoni
122HIV-related Common OIs
123Question
- A newly diagnosed HIV-infected person who is
asymptomatic presents to clinic. After thorough
history and exam, they are still asymptomatic,
WHO Stage I. - The most appropriate therapy is
- HIV antiretroviral therapy
- Cotrimoxazole daily
- Azithromycin weekly
- Chloroquine weekly
- None of the Above
124Question
- Cotrimoxazole (TMP/SMZ) prophylaxis is
prescribed. In asymptomatic HIV-infected persons,
TMP/SMZ was been shown to reduce all except - Death
- Malaria
- PCP Pneumocystis jirovecii
- Toxoplasmosis
- None of the Above
125Question Pulmonary
- 34yo M, HIV presents with pulmonary symptoms
with a cough and fever of 5 days duration. - Which is the most likely etiologic diagnosis?
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Mycobacteria tuberculosis
- Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
126Question Pulmonary
- 34yo M HIV presents with pulmonary symptoms with
a dry cough and fever of 4 weeks duration. - Which is the most likely etiologic diagnosis?
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Mycobacteria tuberculosis
- Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
127Diagnostic and Management Algorithm for PCP
Suspects
- PCP Suspect
- HIV and WHO clinical Stages 3 or 4 or CD4 count
lt200 cells/mL - Exertional dyspnea, non-productive cough, fever
- Symptoms gt2 weeks
CXR
Reticular or granular opacities
Normal
Ambulatory pulse oximetry
Sputum for AFB
desaturation
normal