Midterm Exam Review Game UNIT I: Enhancing and Evolving to

1
Midterm Exam Review GameUNIT I Enhancing and
Evolving to Perfection?
2

• Which one of the following was not a main idea
  that Darwin advanced in his works?  
• A) species change over time  
• B) living species have arisen from earlier life
  forms  
• C) modern species arose through a process known
  as "descent with modification"  
• D) new species can form by inheritance of
  characteristics acquired during an individuals
  life  
• E) new species arise by natural selection

3

• Which one of the following was not a main idea
  that Darwin advanced in his works?  
• A) species change over time  
• B) living species have arisen from earlier life
  forms  
• C) modern species arose through a process known
  as "descent with modification"  
• D) new species can form by inheritance of
  characteristics acquired during an individuals
  life  
• E) new species arise by natural selection

4

• _____ and _____ generate variation, while ______
  results in adaptation to the environment
• A) genetic drift natural selection mutation
  
• B) mutation sexual reproduction natural
  selection
• C) sexual reproduction natural selection mutation
• D) natural selection mutation sexual
  recombination

5

• _____ and _____ generate variation, while ______
  results in adaptation to the environment
• A) genetic drift natural selection mutation
  
• B) mutation sexual reproduction natural
  selection
• C) sexual reproduction natural selection mutation
• D) natural selection mutation sexual
  recombination

6

• Which term describes structures similar in
  purpose but not inherited from a common ancestor?
• homologous
• analogous
• vestigial
• embryonic

7

• Which term describes structures similar in
  purpose but not inherited from a common ancestor?
• homologous
• analogous
• vestigial
• embryonic

8

• As a result of sexual reproduction, the rate of
  evolutionary change in the plant and animal
  kingdoms has been greatly speeded up because
• A) characteristic change less frequent than in
  asexual reproduction
• B) two parents have fewer offspring than one
  parent
• C) the offspring show more diversity than in
  asexual reproduction
• D) environmental changes never affect organisms
  produced by asexual reproduction

9

• As a result of sexual reproduction, the rate of
  evolutionary change in the plant and animal
  kingdoms has been greatly speeded up because
• A) characteristic change less frequent than in
  asexual reproduction
• B) two parents have fewer offspring than one
  parent
• C) the offspring show more diversity than in
  asexual reproduction
• D) environmental changes never affect organisms
  produced by asexual reproduction

10

• The hip bone of a python and the human tail bone
  are each examples of _____
• Biogenesis
• Fossil record
• Homologous structures
• Vestigial Structures

11

• The hip bone of a python and the human tail bone
  are each examples of _____
• Biogenesis
• Fossil record
• Homologous structures
• Vestigial Structures

12

• The human arm, the whale fin, and the bat wing
  are similar structures that result from evolution
  from a common ancestor. They are
• divergent structures
• vestigial structures
• homologous structures
• analogous structures

13

• The human arm, the whale fin, and the bat wing
  are similar structures that result from evolution
  from a common ancestor. They are
• divergent structures
• vestigial structures
• homologous structures
• analogous structures

14

• A similarity in DNA sequence between two species
• does not indicate a relationship
• is a genetic coincidence
• is impossible
• suggests a close relationship

15

• A similarity in DNA sequence between two species
• does not indicate a relationship
• is a genetic coincidence
• is impossible
• suggests a close relationship

16

• If a species lacks the variations needed to
  survive in a changing environment, it will most
  likely
• acquire them through evolution
• become extinct
• evolve into a lower form
• evolve into a higher form

17

• If a species lacks the variations needed to
  survive in a changing environment, it will most
  likely
• acquire them through evolution
• become extinct
• evolve into a lower form
• evolve into a higher form

18

• An inherited trait that increases chances of
  survival and reproduction is
• a mutation
• not possible in nature
• a genotype
• an adaptation

19

• An inherited trait that increases chances of
  survival and reproduction is
• a mutation
• not possible in nature
• a genotype
• an adaptation

20

• In the process of evolution, the effect of the
  environment is to
• generate variation within the species
• prevent the occurrence of mutations
• act as a selective pressure on variations that
  exist within the species
• provide favorable conditions for the survival of
  the species

21

• In the process of evolution, the effect of the
  environment is to
• generate variation within the species
• prevent the occurrence of mutations
• act as a selective pressure on variations that
  exist within the species
• provide favorable conditions for the survival of
  the species

22

• Which of the following provides evidence that
  vertebrates evolved from a common ancestor?
• A) homologous structures
• B) the presence of similar genes
• C) the presence of vestigial tail bones even in
  vertebrate species that do not have a functional
  tail
• D) All of the choices are correct

23

• Which of the following provides evidence that
  vertebrates evolved from a common ancestor?
• A) homologous structures
• B) the presence of similar genes
• C) the presence of vestigial tail bones even in
  vertebrate species that do not have a functional
  tail
• D) All of the choices are correct

24

• According to this evolutionary tree, which
  species is the common ancestor of lungfishes and
  amphibians?
• Species 1
• Species 2
• Species 3
• Species 4
• Species 5
• Species 6
•  

25

• According to this evolutionary tree, which
  species is the common ancestor of lungfishes and
  amphibians?
• Species 1
• Species 2
• Species 3
• Species 4
• Species 5
• Species 6
•  

26

• According to this evolutionary tree, which
  species is the common ancestor of tetrapods and
  amniotes?
• Species 1
• Species 2
• Species 3
• Species 4
• Species 5
• Species 6
•  

27

• According to this evolutionary tree, which
  species is the common ancestor of tetrapods and
  amniotes?
• Species 1
• Species 2
• Species 3
• Species 4
• Species 5
• Species 6
•  

28

• In England before 1850 (pre-Industrial
  Revolution), tree trunks were light-colored and
  peppered moths could be either light or dark
  colored.
• After 1850, pollution was the immediate cause of
• darker tree trunks
• darker moths
• lighter tree trunks
• lighter moths
•  

29

• In England before 1850 (pre-Industrial
  Revolution), tree trunks were light-colored and
  peppered moths could be either light or dark
  colored.
• After 1850, pollution was the immediate cause of
• darker tree trunks
• darker moths
• lighter tree trunks
• lighter moths
•  

30

• In England before 1850 (pre-Industrial
  Revolution), tree trunks were light-colored and
  peppered moths could be either light or dark
  colored. After 1850, pollution was the immediate
  cause of darker tree trunks.
• The moth population became darker because
• a. they were covered with soot
• b. birds were more likely to find and eat dark
  moths
• c. birds were more likely to find and eat light
  moths
• d. the adults changed color to escape the birds  

31

• In England before 1850 (pre-Industrial
  Revolution), tree trunks were light-colored and
  peppered moths could be either light or dark
  colored. After 1850, pollution was the immediate
  cause of darker tree trunks.
• The moth population became darker because
• a. they were covered with soot
• b. birds were more likely to find and eat dark
  moths
• c. birds were more likely to find and eat light
  moths
• d. the adults changed color to escape the birds  

32

• In England before 1850 (pre-Industrial
  Revolution), tree trunks were light-colored and
  peppered moths could be either light or dark
  colored. After 1850, pollution was the immediate
  cause of darker tree trunks. The moth population
  became darker because birds were more likely to
  find and eat light moths.
• Birds in this case are examples of
• an environmental pressure
• a variation
• an adaptation
• co-evolution
•  

33

• In England before 1850 (pre-Industrial
  Revolution), tree trunks were light-colored and
  peppered moths could be either light or dark
  colored. After 1850, pollution was the immediate
  cause of darker tree trunks. The moth population
  became darker because birds were more likely to
  find and eat light moths.
• Birds in this case are examples of
• an environmental pressure
• a variation
• an adaptation
• co-evolution
•  

34

• More than 1.5 million species of animals have
  been described, yet all of them have DNA that is
  made of the same building blocks. This is
  evidence that all animals have
• a common ancestor.
• identical fossils
• similar appearances
• the exact same DNA sequences.
•  

35

• More than 1.5 million species of animals have
  been described, yet all of them have DNA that is
  made of the same building blocks. This is
  evidence that all animals have
• a common ancestor.
• identical fossils
• similar appearances
• the exact same DNA sequences.
•  

36

• Use the following DNA sequences to answer the
  question below.  
• Honey bee G A T T C A G T C A
• Bumble bee G A T T C A G T C G
• Carpenter bee G T T T C A T T C A
• Leafcutter bee C A T T G A C T C A
• Mason bee C T A A G G C T A A
• Digger bee G T T T G G C C A A
•  
• Which of the following is a valid conclusion
  based up on the data above?
• a) Honey bees are more closely related to bumble
  bees than they are to leafcutter bees
• b) Mason bees are the honey bees closest
  "relatives"
• c) Carpenter bees are the bees least closely
  related to honey bees
• d) Mason bees are more closely related to honey
  bees than carpenter bees are
•  

37

• Use the following DNA sequences to answer the
  question below.  
• Honey bee G A T T C A G T C A
• Bumble bee G A T T C A G T C G
• Carpenter bee G T T T C A T T C A
• Leafcutter bee C A T T G A C T C A
• Mason bee C T A A G G C T A A
• Digger bee G T T T G G C C A A
•  
• Which of the following is a valid conclusion
  based up on the data above?
• a) Honey bees are more closely related to bumble
  bees than they are to leafcutter bees
• b) Mason bees are the honey bees closest
  "relatives"
• c) Carpenter bees are the bees least closely
  related to honey bees
• d) Mason bees are more closely related to honey
  bees than carpenter bees are
•  

38

• Refer to the diagram below. With one exception,
  all of these structures are homologous. Which
  of these structures represents an analogous
  structure?
•  
•  
•  

39

• Refer to the diagram below. With one exception,
  all of these structures are homologous. Which
  of these structures represents an analogous
  structure?
•  
•  
•  

40

• Fertilized mosquito eggs can live in culture
  medium X. Culture medium Y is the same as X
  except DDT has been added to it. (DDT was an
  insecticide that is now banned) In culture
  medium Y, only a few eggs survive after 24 hours.
  (The black eggs are dead.) Culture medium Z is
  the same as culture medium Y, except no eggs have
  been added.
•  
• The few eggs surviving in
• culture medium Y probably
• A) inherited an acquired characteristic.
• B) became resistant by the law of use.
• C) acquired a gene for resistance after DDT was
  added.
• D) had a variation for resistance to DDT.

41

• Fertilized mosquito eggs can live in culture
  medium X. Culture medium Y is the same as X
  except DDT has been added to it. (DDT was an
  insecticide that is now banned) In culture
  medium Y, only a few eggs survive after 24 hours.
  (The black eggs are dead.) Culture medium Z is
  the same as culture medium Y, except no eggs have
  been added.
•  
• The few eggs surviving in
• culture medium Y probably
• A) inherited an acquired characteristic.
• B) became resistant by the law of use.
• C) acquired a gene for resistance after DDT was
  added.
• D) had a variation for resistance to DDT.

42

• Fertilized mosquito eggs can live in culture
  medium X. Culture medium Y is the same as X
  except DDT has been added to it. (DDT was an
  insecticide that is now banned) In culture
  medium Y, only a few eggs survive after 24 hours.
  (The black eggs are dead.) Culture medium Z is
  the same as culture medium Y, except no eggs have
  been added.
•  
• Addition of the DDT is a(n)
• A) change in the environment
• B) variation
• C) stablilizing factor
• D) acquired characteristic

43

• Fertilized mosquito eggs can live in culture
  medium X. Culture medium Y is the same as X
  except DDT has been added to it. (DDT was an
  insecticide that is now banned) In culture
  medium Y, only a few eggs survive after 24 hours.
  (The black eggs are dead.) Culture medium Z is
  the same as culture medium Y, except no eggs have
  been added.
•  
• Addition of the DDT is a(n)
• A) change in the environment
• B) variation
• C) stablilizing factor
• D) acquired characteristic

44

• Fertilized mosquito eggs can live in culture
  medium X. Culture medium Y is the same as X
  except DDT has been added to it. (DDT was an
  insecticide that is now banned) In culture
  medium Y, only a few eggs survive after 24 hours.
  (The black eggs are dead.) Culture medium Z is
  the same as culture medium Y, except no eggs have
  been added.
•  
• If eggs from the mosquitoes
• that developed from surviving
• culture Y were placed in culture Z,
• they would probably
• A) die
• B) survive and reproduce
• C)change form
• D) mutate

45

• Fertilized mosquito eggs can live in culture
  medium X. Culture medium Y is the same as X
  except DDT has been added to it. (DDT was an
  insecticide that is now banned) In culture
  medium Y, only a few eggs survive after 24 hours.
  (The black eggs are dead.) Culture medium Z is
  the same as culture medium Y, except no eggs have
  been added.
•  
• If eggs from the mosquitoes
• that developed from surviving
• culture Y were placed in culture Z,
• they would probably
• A) die
• B) survive and reproduce
• C)change form
• D) mutate

46

• Your roommate was given an antibiotic for strep
  throat. After three days she is feeling fine and
  asks you if she should stop taking the antibiotic
  and save the pills for the next time she has a
  sore throat. Your best response would be
• A. Yes, quit taking them, because the role of
  antibiotics is to give the body's immune system
  enough time to fight off the infection, so she
  doesn't need the pills after she feels better.
• B. No, she must finish her course of treatment
  because repeated exposure to antibiotics may
  result in drug resistant strains.
• C. Yes, the antibiotics were very potent and
  able to kill off the infection more quickly than
  anticipated.
• D. No, the infection is really not under control
  yet to the point that her immune system can
  finish fighting it off.

47

• Your roommate was given an antibiotic for strep
  throat. After three days she is feeling fine and
  asks you if she should stop taking the antibiotic
  and save the pills for the next time she has a
  sore throat. Your best response would be
• A. Yes, quit taking them, because the role of
  antibiotics is to give the body's immune system
  enough time to fight off the infection, so she
  doesn't need the pills after she feels better.
• B. No, she must finish her course of treatment
  because repeated exposure to antibiotics may
  result in drug resistant strains.
• C. Yes, the antibiotics were very potent and
  able to kill off the infection more quickly than
  anticipated.
• D. No, the infection is really not under control
  yet to the point that her immune system can
  finish fighting it off.

48

• Tuberculosis is a _______ infection that is
  passed through ___________.
• A. viral, direct contact
• B. viral, animal bites
• C. bacterial, food
• D. bacterial, indirect contact

49

• Tuberculosis is a _______ infection that is
  passed through ___________.
• A. viral, direct contact
• B. viral, animal bites
• C. bacterial, food
• D. bacterial, indirect contact

50

• Eukaryotic cells differ from prokaryotic cells in
  that eukaryotic cells possess
• A. Cell walls
• B. Cytoplasm
• C. A nucleus
• D. Ribosomes

51

• Eukaryotic cells differ from prokaryotic cells in
  that eukaryotic cells possess
• A. Cell walls
• B. Cytoplasm
• C. A nucleus
• D. Ribosomes

52

• Plant cells differ from animal cells in that they
  possess
• A. Cell walls
• B. Cytoplasm
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Ribosomes

53

• Plant cells differ from animal cells in that they
  possess
• A. Cell walls
• B. Cytoplasm
• C. Mitochondria
• D. Ribosomes

54

• Penicillin is a common antibiotic used to treat
  infections. Which of the following statements is
  the most accurate prediction about this
  antibiotic?
• A. It is as effective now as when it first came
  out.
• B. There are no microbes left that aren't
  resistant to this antibiotic, given its
  widespread use.
• C. In areas where this antibiotic is widely
  used, bacterial may become resistant to it.
• D. None of the above

55

• Penicillin is a common antibiotic used to treat
  infections. Which of the following statements is
  the most accurate prediction about this
  antibiotic?
• A. It is as effective now as when it first came
  out.
• B. There are no microbes left that aren't
  resistant to this antibiotic, given its
  widespread use.
• C. In areas where this antibiotic is widely
  used, bacterial may become resistant to it.
• D. None of the above

56

• All cells possess all the following components
  EXCEPT
• A. cytoplasm.
• B. ribosomes.
• C. a nucleus.
• D. plasma/cell membrane.

57

• All cells possess all the following components
  EXCEPT
• A. cytoplasm.
• B. ribosomes.
• C. a nucleus.
• D. plasma/cell membrane.

58

• Animal cells possess all the following components
  EXCEPT
• A. A nucleus and ribosomes.
• B. Chloroplasts and a large central vacoule
• B. Mitochondria and cytoplasm.
• D. Plasma/cell membrane and centrioles.

59

• Animal cells possess all the following components
  EXCEPT
• A. A nucleus and ribosomes.
• B. Chloroplasts and a large central vacoule
• B. Mitochondria and cytoplasm.
• D. Plasma/cell membrane and centrioles.

60

• Which of the cell types below are prokaryotic
  cells
• Plant cells
• Animal cells.
• Fungi
• Bacteria

61

• Which of the cell types below are prokaryotic
  cells
• Plant cells
• Animal cells.
• Fungi
• Bacteria

62

• What is the correct relationship among DNA, genes
  and chromosomes?
• A gene contains many chromosomes which are
  composed of proteins
• A chromosome contains many genes which are
  composed of DNA
• A gene is composed of proteins which are found on
  the chromosomes
• A chromosome contains many genes which are
  composed of proteins

63

• What is the correct relationship among DNA, genes
  and chromosomes?
• A gene contains many chromosomes which are
  composed of proteins
• A chromosome contains many genes which are
  composed of DNA
• A gene is composed of proteins which are found on
  the chromosomes
• A chromosome contains many genes which are
  composed of proteins

64

• DNA and RNA are polymers of
• A. fatty acids
• B. nucleotides
• C. monoglycerides
• D. amino acids

65

• DNA and RNA are polymers of
• A. fatty acids
• B. nucleotides
• C. monoglycerides
• D. amino acids

66

• What are the parts of a nucleotide?   a. a
  phosphate, five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen base
  b. a group of linked amino acidsc. one half of
  a DNA moleculed. a protein, a sugar, and a
  phosphatee. a phosphate, a six-carbon sugar, and
  a nitrogen base

67

• What are the parts of a nucleotide?   a. a
  phosphate, five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen base
  b. a group of linked amino acidsc. one half of
  a DNA moleculed. a protein, a sugar, and a
  phosphatee. a phosphate, a six-carbon sugar, and
  a nitrogen base

68

• Which parts of a nucleotide make-up the backbone
  of a nucleic acid molecule?   A) phosphate
• B) sugar
• C) nitrogen base
• D) A and B
• E) B and C

69

• Which parts of a nucleotide make-up the backbone
  of a nucleic acid molecule?   A) phosphate
• B) sugar
• C) nitrogen base
• D) A and B
• E) B and C

70

• In double stranded DNA, the weak bonds between
  complementary nitrogen bases involve   a.
  RNAb. DNAc. hydrogen bonds d. five-carbon
  sugarse. sulfur

71

• In double stranded DNA, the weak bonds between
  complementary nitrogen bases involve   a.
  RNAb. DNAc. hydrogen bonds d. five-carbon
  sugarse. sulfur

72

• Which of the following is NOT one of the nitrogen
  bases in a DNA molecule?   a. adenineb.
  cytosinec. uracil d. thyminee. guanine

73

• Which of the following is NOT one of the nitrogen
  bases in a DNA molecule?   a. adenineb.
  cytosinec. uracil d. thyminee. guanine

74

• Cytosine will form a base pair only with   a.
  cytosineb. adeninec. thymined. uracile.
  guanine

75

• Cytosine will form a base pair only with   a.
  cytosineb. adeninec. thymined. uracile.
  guanine

76

• What is the base sequence of the DNA strand that
  would be complementary to the following
  single-stranded DNA molecule?
• GGATCTGATCCAGTCA
• _______________________________
  __

77

• What is the base sequence of the DNA strand that
  would be complementary to the following
  single-stranded DNA molecule?
• GGATCTGATCCAGTCA
• CCTAGACTAGGTCAGT

78

• Identify components 1 and 2 of the DNAmolecule
  to the
• right.

79

• Identify components 1 and 2 of the DNAmolecule
  to the
• right.
• 1 a phosphate
• 2 deoxyribose sugar

80

• In this DNA,
• which of the following can 3 and 4 be?
• A and G
• U and A
• C and C
• A and T

81

• In this DNA,
• which of the following can 3 and 4 be?
• A and G
• U and A
• C and C
• A and T

82

• In this DNA,
• 3 and 4 are held
• Together by
• Barry Bonds
• Covalent Bonds
• Peptide bonds
• Hydrogen bonds

83

• In this DNA,
• 3 and 4 are held
• Together by
• Barry Bonds
• Covalent Bonds
• Peptide bonds
• Hydrogen bonds

84

• DNA replication
• A. occurs by the addition of nucleotides to the
  end of the DNA molecule.
• B. results in the formation of four new DNA
  strands.
• C. produces two brand new DNA strands that do
  not resemble the original strand
• D. uses each strand of a DNA molecule as a
  template for the creation of a new strand.
• E. begins when two DNA molecules join together to
  exchange segments.

85

• DNA replication
• A. occurs by the addition of nucleotides to the
  end of the DNA molecule.
• B. results in the formation of four new DNA
  strands.
• C. produces two brand new DNA strands that do
  not resemble the original strand
• D. uses each strand of a DNA molecule as a
  template for the creation of a new strand.
• E. begins when two DNA molecules join together to
  exchange segments.

86

• Describe what is happening in eachstep of DNA
  replication(figure to right)

87

• Describe what is happening in eachstep of DNA
  replication(figure to right)
• 1 one parent double stranded DNA
• 2 DNA unzips and unwinds
• 3 Complementary nitrogen bases match up forming
  a new strand of DNA using an old strand as a
  template
• 4 Two daughter double helices each ½ old and ½
  new

88

• A double-stranded DNA is 21 cytosine.
• What is the percent of thymine in that DNA?

89

• A double-stranded DNA is 21 cytosine.
• What is the percent of thymine in that DNA?
• 29 thymine

90

• A double-stranded DNA is 38 adenine.
• What is the percent of cytosine in that DNA?

91

• A double-stranded DNA is 38 adenine.
• What is the percent of cytosine in that DNA?
• 12 cytosine

92

• The coded information in a DNA molecule
  determines the formation of
• A. polysaccharides
• B. polypeptides
• C. monosaccharides
• D. lipids

93

• The coded information in a DNA molecule
  determines the formation of
• A. polysaccharides
• B. polypeptides
• C. monosaccharides
• D. lipids

94

• Which one of the following sequences best
  describes the flow of information when a gene
  directs the synthesis of a cellular component?  
• RNA ? DNA ? RNA ? protein
• DNA ? RNA ? protein  
• protein ? RNA ? DNA
• DNA ? amino acid ? RNA ? protein  

95

• Which one of the following sequences best
  describes the flow of information when a gene
  directs the synthesis of a cellular component?  
• RNA ? DNA ? RNA ? protein
• DNA ? RNA ? protein  
• protein ? RNA ? DNA
• DNA ? amino acid ? RNA ? protein  

96

• Two differences between DNA and RNA are that only
  the RNA contains
• a) ribose and uracil
• b) deoxyribose and uracil
• c) deoxyribose and thymine
• d) ribose and adenine
• e) ribose and thymine

97

• Two differences between DNA and RNA are that only
  the RNA contains
• a) ribose and uracil
• b) deoxyribose and uracil
• c) deoxyribose and thymine
• d) ribose and adenine
• e) ribose and thymine

98

• Which of the following correctly describes
  messenger RNA?   a. single strandedb. uracil
  replaces thyminec. many sugar to phosphate bonds
  are presentd. contains ribose sugare. all of
  the above

99

• Which of the following correctly describes
  messenger RNA?   a. single strandedb. uracil
  replaces thyminec. many sugar to phosphate bonds
  are presentd. contains ribose sugare. all of
  the above

100

• The process of making RNA from DNA is  
• a. transcription b. translation c.
  conjunctiond. peptide synthesise. this process
  cannot happen

101

• The process of making RNA from DNA is  
• a. transcription b. translation c.
  conjunctiond. peptide synthesise. this process
  cannot happen

102

• Where is RNA synthesized in a cell?   a.
  nucleus b. mitochondriac. ribosomed.
  endoplasmic reticulume. golgi body

103

• Where is RNA synthesized in a cell?   a.
  nucleus b. mitochondriac. ribosomed.
  endoplasmic reticulume. golgi body

104

• What is the base sequence of the RNA strand that
  would be transcribed from the DNA sequence below?
• GGATCTGATCCAGTCA
• _______________________________
  __

105

• What is the base sequence of the RNA strand that
  would be transcribed from the DNA sequence below?
• GGATCTGATCCAGTCA
• CCUAGACUAGGUCAGU

106

• The process of making proteins from RNA is  
  a. transcription b. translation c.
  conjunctiond. peptide synthesise. this process
  cannot happen

107

• The process of making proteins from RNA is  
  a. transcription b. translation c.
  conjunctiond. peptide synthesise. this process
  cannot happen

108

• The genetic code is redundant. This means
• One codon may code for several amino acids
• The majority of organisms use the same genetic
  code
• mRNA has sections of nucleotides that are
  removed.
• Several different codons may code for the same
  amino acid.

109

• The genetic code is redundant. This means
• One codon may code for several amino acids
• The majority of organisms use the same genetic
  code
• mRNA has sections of nucleotides that are
  removed.
• Several different codons may code for the same
  amino acid.

110

• Any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is
  called
• an advantage
• codon.
• a mutation.
• an anticodon

111

• Any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is
  called
• an advantage
• codon.
• a mutation.
• an anticodon

112

• A physical or chemical agent that changes the
  nucleotide sequence of DNA is called 
• a) an anticodon
• b) a terminator
• c) a transposon
• d) a mutagen.

113

• A physical or chemical agent that changes the
  nucleotide sequence of DNA is called 
• a) an anticodon
• b) a terminator
• c) a transposon
• d) a mutagen.

114

• A frameshift mutation could result from
• a base insertion only
• a base deletion only 
• a base substitution only
• deletion of three consecutive bases
• either an insertion or a deletion of a base

115

• A frameshift mutation could result from
• a base insertion only
• a base deletion only 
• a base substitution only
• deletion of three consecutive bases
• either an insertion or a deletion of a base

116

• A point mutation could result from
• a base insertion only
• a base deletion only 
• a base substitution only
• deletion of three consecutive bases
• either an insertion or a deletion of a base

117

• A point mutation could result from
• a base insertion only
• a base deletion only 
• a base substitution only
• deletion of three consecutive bases
• either an insertion or a deletion of a base

118

• Which mutation would be most likely to have a
  catastrophic effect on the functioning of a
  protein?
• a base substitution near the start of the coding
  sequence but not in the start codon
• a base deletion near the beginning of the coding
  sequence but not in the start codon
• a base deletion near the end of the coding
  sequence, but not in the stop codon
• deletion of three bases near the start of the
  coding sequence, but not in the start codon

119

• Which mutation would be most likely to have a
  catastrophic effect on the functioning of a
  protein?
• a base substitution near the start of the coding
  sequence but not in the start codon
• a base deletion near the beginning of the coding
  sequence but not in the start codon
• a base deletion near the end of the coding
  sequence, but not in the stop codon
• deletion of three bases near the start of the
  coding sequence, but not in the start codon

120

• Changing the codon AGC to AGA represents a ____
  mutation.
• Point
• Duplication
• Frameshift
• Deletion

121

• Changing the codon AGC to AGA represents a ____
  mutation.
• Point
• Duplication
• Frameshift
• Deletion

122

• A spontaneous mutation usually originates as an
  error in
• DNA replication.
• DNA transcription
• translation.
• reverse transcription.

123

• A spontaneous mutation usually originates as an
  error in
• DNA replication.
• DNA transcription
• translation.
• reverse transcription.

124

• True or False? A mutation always causes a mutant
  phenotype.
• true
• false
• cannot be determined

125

• True or False? A mutation always causes a mutant
  phenotype.
• true
• false
• cannot be determined

126

• During asexual reproduction, the genetic material
  of the parent is passed on to the offspring by
• A) homologous pairing.
• B) mitosis and cytokinesis.
• C) meiosis and fertilization.
• D) meiosis and cytokinesis.

127

• During asexual reproduction, the genetic material
  of the parent is passed on to the offspring by
• A) homologous pairing.
• B) mitosis and cytokinesis.
• C) meiosis and fertilization.
• D) meiosis and cytokinesis.

128

• Which of the following cells is haploid?
• a) egg cell    
• b) lung cell   
• c) sperm cell     
• d) kidney cell
• e) a and c
• f) b and d

129

• Which of the following cells is haploid?
• a) egg cell    
• b) lung cell   
• c) sperm cell     
• d) kidney cell
• e) a and c
• f) b and d

130

• Which of the following cells is diploid?
• a) egg cell    
• b) lung cell   
• c) sperm cell     
• d) kidney cell
• e) a and c
• f) b and d

131

• Which of the following cells is diploid?
• a) egg cell    
• b) lung cell   
• c) sperm cell     
• d) kidney cell
• e) a and c
• f) b and d

132

• Which of the following statements is false?
• A) a typical body cell is called a somatic cell
• B) gametes are haploid cells
• C) somatic cells are diploid
• D) somatic cells are made by meiosis
• E) a zygote is a fertilized egg

133

• Which of the following statements is false?
• A) a typical body cell is called a somatic cell
• B) gametes are haploid cells
• C) somatic cells are diploid
• D) somatic cells are made by meiosis
• E) a zygote is a fertilized egg

134

• An animal cell with 12 chromosomes undergoes
  normal meiosis. What is the total number of
  chromosomes in each of the resulting daughter
  cells?
• a) 6    
• b) 8   
• c) 12     
• d) 24

135

• An animal cell with 12 chromosomes undergoes
  normal meiosis. What is the total number of
  chromosomes in each of the resulting daughter
  cells?
• a) 6    
• b) 8   
• c) 12     
• d) 24

136

• Asexual reproduction of diploid organisms
  normally results in new organisms that contain
  cells with
• A) fewer chromosomes than are found in the cells
  of the parent
• B) the haploid number of chromosomes
• C) more chromosomes than are found in the cells
  of the parent
• D) the diploid number of chromosomes

137

• Asexual reproduction of diploid organisms
  normally results in new organisms that contain
  cells with
• A) fewer chromosomes than are found in the cells
  of the parent
• B) the haploid number of chromosomes
• C) more chromosomes than are found in the cells
  of the parent
• D) the diploid number of chromosomes

138

• How many total chromosomes are found in a normal
  gamete (sex cell) of a human?
• a) 23    
• b) 32
• c) 46    
• d) 64

139

• How many total chromosomes are found in a normal
  gamete (sex cell) of a human?
• a) 23    
• b) 32
• c) 46    
• d) 64

140

• Which of the following indicates the types of
  cells that are produced in humans by meiosis and
  mitosis?
• a) body cells (somatic cells ) are produced in
  both mitosis and meiosis
• b) body cells are produced in meiosis gametes
  in mitosis
• c) gametes are produced in both meiosis and
  mitosis
• d) body cells are produced in mitosis gametes
  in meiosis

141

• Which of the following indicates the types of
  cells that are produced in humans by meiosis and
  mitosis?
• a) body cells (somatic cells ) are produced in
  both mitosis and meiosis
• b) body cells are produced in meiosis gametes
  in mitosis
• c) gametes are produced in both meiosis and
  mitosis
• d) body cells are produced in mitosis gametes
  in meiosis

142

• As the result of normal meiosis, the daughter
  cells are
• a) genetically identical to each other but not
  to the parent cell
• b) genetically identical to the parent cell but
  not to each other
• c) genetically identical to the parent cell and
  to each other
• d) identical to neither the parent cell nor to
  each other

143

• As the result of normal meiosis, the daughter
  cells are
• a) genetically identical to each other but not
  to the parent cell
• b) genetically identical to the parent cell but
  not to each other
• c) genetically identical to the parent cell and
  to each other
• d) identical to neither the parent cell nor to
  each other

144

• Which of the following is haploid?
• A) zygote
• B) embryo
• C) muscle cell
• D) gamete

145

• Which of the following is haploid?
• A) zygote
• B) embryo
• C) muscle cell
• D) gamete

146

• Which process is represented in the diagram?
• A) budding
• B) mitosis
• C) fertilization
• D) meiosis
•  

147

• Which process is represented in the diagram?
• A) budding
• B) mitosis
• C) fertilization
• D) meiosis
•  

148

• As the result of normal mitosis, the daughter
  cells are
• a) genetically identical to each other but not
  to the parent cell
• b) genetically identical to the parent cell but
  not to each other
• c) genetically identical to the parent cell and
  to each other
• d) identical to neither the parent cell nor to
  each other

149

• As the result of normal mitosis, the daughter
  cells are
• a) genetically identical to each other but not
  to the parent cell
• b) genetically identical to the parent cell but
  not to each other
• c) genetically identical to the parent cell and
  to each other
• d) identical to neither the parent cell nor to
  each other

150

• Diploid cells of the fruit fly Drosophila have 10
  chromosomes. How many chromosomes does a
  Drosophila gamete have?
• A) one
• B) two
• C) five
• D) ten
• E) twenty

151

• Diploid cells of the fruit fly Drosophila have 10
  chromosomes. How many chromosomes does a
  Drosophila gamete have?
• A) one
• B) two
• C) five
• D) ten
• E) twenty

152

• How many total chromosomes are found in a normal
  body cell (somatic cell) of a human?
• a) 23    
• b) 32
• c) 46    
• d) 64

153

• How many total chromosomes are found in a normal
  body cell (somatic cell) of a human?
• a) 23    
• b) 32
• c) 46    
• d) 64

154

• The abnormal zygote is most likely the result of
• A) chromosome breakage
• B) gene linkage
• C) nondisjunction
• D) polyploidy

155

• The abnormal zygote is most likely the result of
• A) chromosome breakage
• B) gene linkage
• C) nondisjunction
• D) polyploidy

156

• The resulting abnormal zygote would be considered
  a
• A) monosomy B) trisomy

157

• The resulting abnormal zygote would be considered
  a
• A) monosomy B) trisomy

158

• Chromosome number changes during meiosis because
  the process consists of
• A) two cell divisions without any chromosome
  replication.
• B) a single cell division without any chromosome
  replication.
• C) two cell divisions in which half of the
  chromosomes are destroyed.
• D) two cell divisions and only a single round of
  chromosome replication.
• E) four cell divisions with no chromosome
  replication.

159

• Chromosome number changes during meiosis because
  the process consists of
• A) two cell divisions without any chromosome
  replication.
• B) a single cell division without any chromosome
  replication.
• C) two cell divisions in which half of the
  chromosomes are destroyed.
• D) two cell divisions and only a single round of
  chromosome replication.
• E) four cell divisions with no chromosome
  replication.

160

• The diagram below shows a process that affects
  chromosomes during meiosis.
• This process can be used to explain
• A) why some offspring are genetically
  identical to their parents
• B) the process of differentiation in offspring
• C) why some offspring physically resemble their
  parents
• D) the origin of new combinations of traits in
  offspring

161

• The diagram below shows a process that affects
  chromosomes during meiosis.
• This process can be used to explain
• A) why some offspring are genetically
  identical to their parents
• B) the process of differentiation in offspring
• C) why some offspring physically resemble their
  parents
• D) the origin of new combinations of traits in
  offspring

162

• Sexual reproduction by necessity involves which
  two processes?
• A) meiosis and fertilization
• B) mutation and translocation
• C) nondisjunction and differentiation
• D) mitosis and fertilization

163

• Sexual reproduction by necessity involves which
  two processes?
• A) meiosis and fertilization
• B) mutation and translocation
• C) nondisjunction and differentiation
• D) mitosis and fertilization

164

• Which diagram BEST represents the formation of a
  zygote that could develop into a normal human
  male?
•  
•  
•  
•  
•  

165

• Which diagram BEST represents the formation of a
  zygote that could develop into a normal human
  male?
•  
•  
•  
•  
•  

166

• Blight is a plant disease caused by a fungus that
  affects potato plants. Some wild breeds of potato
  have natural resistance to the fungus. These wild
  potatoes contain chemical compounds that cause
  them to taste bad. Scientists are trying to
  produce potato plants that are resistant to
  blight but still produce potatoes that taste
  good.
•  
• The development of a blight-resistant potato
  breed might be good for the environment because
  the new potato breed will need _____________.
• less water
• less fertilizer
• less fungicide
• less field space

167

• Blight is a plant disease caused by a fungus that
  affects potato plants. Some wild breeds of potato
  have natural resistance to the fungus. These wild
  potatoes contain chemical compounds that cause
  them to taste bad. Scientists are trying to
  produce potato plants that are resistant to
  blight but still produce potatoes that taste
  good.
•  
• The development of a blight-resistant potato
  breed might be good for the environment because
  the new potato breed will need _____________.
• less water
• less fertilizer
• less fungicide
• less field space

168

• Two farmers plant different varieties of corn on
  neighboring farms. Farmer A plants genetically
  modified corn. Farmer B plants a non-modified
  variety of corn. What would be farmer Bs primary
  concern if she plans to gather seed for next
  years crop?
• loss of genetic variability in the non-modified
  variety
• that mutation rates will increase in the
  non-modified variety
• that insects will only pollinate the genetically
  modified corn
• unintended transfer of modified genes to her crop
  by cross-pollination

169

• Two farmers plant different varieties of corn on
  neighboring farms. Farmer A plants genetically
  modified corn. Farmer B plants a non-modified
  variety of corn. What would be farmer Bs primary
  concern if she plans to gather seed for next
  years crop?
• loss of genetic variability in the non-modified
  variety
• that mutation rates will increase in the
  non-modified variety
• that insects will only pollinate the genetically
  modified corn
• unintended transfer of modified genes to her crop
  by cross-pollination