CETD

1
CETD

• Military Requirements forPetty Officer First
  Class

Exit
2
Division damage control petty officers are
normally assigned for what minimum period of time?

• A. One year
• B. Two years
• C. Three months
• D. Six months
• Answer D
• 434-6-7-9

Exit
Exit
3
Who is responsible for carrying out the
requirements of command damage control training?

• A. Commanding officer
• B. Executive officer
• C. Operations officer
• D. Fire marshal
• Answer B
• 433-6-7-7

Exit
Exit
4
The Navy Rights and Responsibilities workshop is
conducted by which of the following groups?

• A. Command Training Team (CTT)
• B. Command Assessment Team (CAT)
• C. Command Rights and Responsibilities Team
• D. Striker Board
• Answer A
• 378-6-3-20

Exit
Exit
5
After a compartment has been flooded with CO2,
what minimum length of time should you wait
before opening the compartment?

• A. 1 hour
• B. 30 minutes
• C. 15 minutes
• D. 10 minutes
• Answer C
• 441-6-7-39

Exit
6
On ships having a Marine detachment, brow and
pier sentries report to which of the following
individuals?

• A. Officer of the deck
• B. Sergeant of the guard
• C. Petty officer of the watch
• D. Junior officer of the deck
• Answer B
• 411-6-5-30

Exit
7
Who is responsible to the commanding officer for
carrying out the policies of the Navy Drug and
Alcohol Abuse Program (NADAP)?

• A. DAPA
• B. CAAC
• C. ARD
• D. NAVALREHCEN
• Answer A
• 393-6-4-20

Exit
8
Assigning your junior petty officers challenging
jobs will increase which of the following skills?

• A. Management
• B. Leadership
• C. Organizational
• D. Administrative
• Answer B
• 356-6-1-64

Exit
9
The number of tag-out logs that each ship class
must maintain is specified by which of the
following individuals?

• A. Chief of Naval Operations
• B. Commanding officer
• C. Squadron commander
• D. Force commander
• Answer D
• 429-6-6-27

Exit
10
One definition of a problem drinker is one who
must drink to function or to cope with life. How
does the Navy define "alcoholism"?

• A. Complying with ordinary social drinking
  customs
• B. Drinking alcohol even though under the
  state-approved age for purchasing alcoholic
  beverages
• C. Depending on alcohol psychologically and/or
  physiologically
• D. Doing something under the influence of
  alcohol that would not normally be done
• Answer C
• 392-6-4-11

Exit
11
Each personnel qualification standard is divided
into which f the following subdivision (s)?

• A. Systems
• B. Fundamentals
• C. Watchstations/Maintenance actions
• D. All of the above
• Answer D
• 402-6-4-55

Exit
12
Personnel should be entered in a hearing testing
program if they are required to work in a
designated noise hazard area with sound levels
that average more than what maximum decibel (dB)
level?

• A. 25 dB
• B. 56 dB
• C. 78 dB
• D. 84 dB
• Answer D
• 427-6-6-21

Exit
13
If authority is given to a subordinate to sign
official correspondence for the commanding
officer, which of the following lines usually
appears below the subordinate's signature?

• A. By direction
• B. By authority of
• C. For the commander
• D. For the commanding officer
• Answer A
• 367-6-2-40

Exit
14
Which of the following terms is used to describe
an unplanned event that interrupts work and
produces damage and/or injury?

• A. Mishap
• B. Mistake
• C. Misconduct
• D. Mismanagement
• Answer A
• 415-6-5-48

Exit
15
Which of the following logs is used by your
division or department to maintain its supply
inventory?

• A. EDL
• B. JSN
• C. OPTAR
• D. POAM
• Answer C
• 352-6-1-48

Exit
16
The Navy's enlisted performance evaluation system
provides an opportunity for individuals to submit
information they feel should be included in their
performance evaluation. Which of the following
methods is used by an individual to provide this
information?

• A. Writing a rough evaluation for the supervisor
• B. Submitting an Individual Input Form to the
  supervisor
• C. Submitting a letter through the chain of
  command
• D. Indicating on the signature block of the
  report form that a statement is desired
• Answer B
• 358-6-2-2

17
Commanding officers may delegate certain
personnel to sign performance evaluations.
Which, if any, of the following performance
evaluations may be signed by someone who has been
delegated this authority?

• A. Evaluations that contain a recommendation for
  advancement to paygrade E-8
• B. Evaluations the contain a recommendation for
  promotion to officer status
• C. Evaluations that withdrew a member's
  recommendation for advancement after
  authorization has been received
• D. None of the above
• Answer D
• 365-6-2-32

18
Which of the following terms describes the Navy's
recognition that drug and alcohol abuse is
incompatible with the Navy's effort to instill
pride and professionalism?

• A. Zero defects
• B. Zero tolerance
• C. Screening with meaning
• D. Self-referrals preferable
• Answer B
• 381-6-3-37

19
The command's enlisted safety committee should
convene according to what schedule?

• A. Weekly
• B. Monthly
• C. Bimonthly
• D. Biannually
• Answer B
• 422-6-6-6

20
Which of the following odors may indicate the
presence of blood agents?

• A. Garlic
• B. New-mown hay
• C. Bitter almonds
• D. Fruity camphor
• Answer C
• 449-6-7-75

Exit
21
Which of the following characteristics or
symptoms identifies a person suffering from
alcoholism?

• A. Physical dependence
• B. Psychological dependence
• C. Both A and B above
• D. Infrequent consumption
• Answer C
• 390-6-4-3

22
Each urinalysis sample is tested how many minimum
number of times by one of the Navy's drug
screening laboratories?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 5
• Answer C
• 383-6-3-40

23
The authority which is granted to all officers
and petty officers to fulfill their duties and
responsibilities is known as what type of
authority?

• A. General
• B. Unlimited
• C. Meritorious
• D. Organizational
• Answer A
• 394-6-4-23

24
Which of the following tools does a supervisor
use to identify and develop solutions to
eliminate hazards?

• A. Job inventory
• B. Job safety analysis
• C. Incidental observation
• D. Deliberate observation
• Answer D
• 420-6-6-1

25
Sign-off authority for final PQS qualification
may be delegated to what minimum level of
authority?

• A. Division CPO
• B. Department head
• C. Division Officer
• D. Work center supervisor
• Answer B
• 403-6-4-61

Exit
26
The security classification you assign to naval
correspondence is determined by which of the
following factors?

• A. The number of information addressees
• B. The information contained in the
  correspondence
• C. The security classification of related
  documents
• D. The security classification of references
  contained in the correspondence
• Answer B
• 372-6-2-67

27
In the absence of the commanding officer in port,
who is primarily responsible for the safety and
proper operation of the unit?

• A. Safety officer
• B. MAA safety force
• C. Officer of the deck
• D. Command master chief
• Answer C
• 409-6-5-25

28
At-sea, which of the following indications may be
a symptom of a dangerous condition?

• A. Wisp of smoke
• B. Minor loss of power
• C. Excessive warmth of a bulkhead
• D. Each of the above
• Answer D
• 439-6-7-29

29
In evaluating the performance of an E-3, when, if
ever, should you assign a grade in block 36,
Directing?

• A. During each evaluation period
• B. When the E-3 requests to be evaluated in this
  area
• C. When the E-3 has clearly demonstrated
  abilities in this area
• D. Never
• Answer C
• 363-6-2-27

30
If you make a mistake in the ship's deck log,
which of the following procedures would you use
to correct the mistake?

• A. Draw a single line through the error, insert
  the correct entry, and initial
• B. Print the word "error" after the mistake and
  insert the correct entry
• C. Erase the error and insert the correct entry
• D. Black out the error, insert the correct
  entry, and initial
• Answer A
• 413-6-5-38

Exit
31
CMEO is an equal opportunity management system
controlled primarily at which of the following
levels?

• A. Command
• B. Secretary of Defense
• C. Secretary of the Navy
• D. Chief of Naval Operations
• Answer A
• 376-6-3-15

32
When the term "TRIDENT" is used, it is understood
to include which of the following elements?

• A. The base
• B. The missile
• C. The submarine
• D. All of the above
• Answer D
• 346-6-1-20

33
The primary mission of our submarine force is to
destroy which of the following types of enemy
ships?

• A. Submarines
• B. Destroyers
• C. Carriers
• D. Cargo
• Answer A
• 345-6-1-18

34
The enlisted service record contains both
official and unofficial papers.

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• Answer TRUE
• 404-6-5-1

35
Depressant overdoses, when taken with alcohol,
may result in which of the following conditions?

• A. Death
• B. Articulate speech
• C. Mellow disposition
• D. Keen sense of humor
• Answer A
• 386-6-3-52

Exit
36
Who should approve changes to the division's
watch, quarter, and station bill?

• A. Executive officer
• B. Commanding officer
• C. Officer of the deck
• D. Command duty officer
• Answer A
• 399-6-4-43

37
Which of the following personnel are subject to
participation in the urinalysis testing program?

• A. Officer personnel under the age of 25 only
• B. Enlisted personnel in paygrades E-4 and below
  only
• C. Enlisted personnel only, regardless of rank
  or age
• D. All enlisted and officer personnel,
  regardless of the rank or age
• Answer D
• 387-6-3-58

38
The ship's deck log may be used in which of the
following ways?

• A. As a chronological record of ship's events
• B. As legal evidence in fact finding proceedings
• C. Both A and B above
• D. As a record of the proceedings of a safety
  committee meeting
• Answer C
• 412-6-5-36

39
What is the highest precedence normally
authorized for administrative messages?

• A. Immediate
• B. Priority
• C. Routine
• D. Flash
• Answer B
• 369-6-2-51

40
Which of the following officer programs does/do
not require a college education?

• A. Officer Candidate School Program
• B. Chief Warrant Officer Program
• C. Limited Duty Officer Program
• D. Both B and C above
• Answer D
• 406-6-5-7

Exit
41
The damage control administrative organization is
contained within what department?

• A. Engineering
• B. Operations
• C. Weapons
• D. Deck
• Answer A
• 435-6-7-13

42
A drug abuser who suffers long periods of time
without sleeping or eating is probably abusing
which of the following types of drugs?

• A. Alcohol
• B. Narcotics
• C. Stimulants
• D. Depressants
• Answer C
• 384-6-3-47

43
As the reporting supervisor evaluating a member
who services on a general court-martial during
the reporting period, which of the following
comments would be appropriate for the Evaluation
Comments section?

• A. Served as a member of a general court-martial
• B. Served as a member of a general
  court-martial finding of guilty on all counts
• C. Served as a member of a general
  court-martial performance of duty in keeping
  with the member's military performance trait
  grade
• D. All of the above
• Answer A
• 366-6-2-36

44
Which of the following officers is responsible
for the administration of the CBR defense bill?

• A. Safety officer
• B. Division officer
• C. CBR defense officer
• D. Damage control assistant
• Answer D
• 401-6-4-50

45
The number one drug problem in the United States
is the abuse of which of the following substances?

• A. Alcohol
• B. Cocaine
• C. Marijuana
• D. Barbiturates
• Answer A
• 389-6-4-1

Exit
46
Who trains safety petty officers and damage
control petty officers in selecting, fit-testing,
and maintaining respirators?

• A. Fire marshall
• B. Division officer
• C. Damage control assistant
• D. Gas-free engineering officer
• Answer D
• 426-6-6-16

47
If a nerve agent is in the atmosphere in your
location, you should don your protective mask.
The mask may be removed under which of the
following circumstances?

• A. One hour has elapsed since the attack
• B. Two hours have elapsed since the attack
• C. The all clear signal is given
• D. The agent can no longer be seen in the
  atmosphere
• Answer C
• 447-6-7-61

48
When EMI is assigned to correct a military
deficiency, which of the following limitations
normally is observed?

• A. EMI is assigned in favor of awarding extra
  duty
• B. EMI is assigned in periods not to exceed 2
  hours daily
• C. EMI is assigned only during normal working
  hours
• D. EMI is assigned, where possible, as a
  substitute for punitive measures covered under
  the UCMJ
• Answer B
• 397-6-4-33

49
When a message is unclassified, what word or
abbreviation should appear on the classification
line?

• A. UNCLASSIFIED
• B. NOCLASS
• C. NONCLAS
• D. UNCLAS
• Answer D
• 370-6-2-56

50
As a minimum, how often should you assess your
division's personnel and material readiness?

• A. Daily
• B. Biweekly
• C. Monthly
• D. Quarterly
• Answer A
• 350-6-1-44

Exit
51
What indicator is used by most states to
determine whether or not a person is intoxicated?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Blood-alcohol level
• C. Poor motor coordination
• D. Number of drinks consumed
• Answer B
• 391-6-4-7

52
The size of the kill zone and damage-survival
zones of a nuclear detonation is determined
primarily by which of the following circumstances?

• A. The weapon yield
• B. The altitude at which detonation takes place
• C. The direction of the prevailing wind
• D. The amount of high explosives used
• Answer A
• 443-6-7-45

53
The Board of Correction of Naval Records (BCNR)
was established for which of the following
purposes?

• A. To relieve Congress of the burden for the
  correction of naval records
• B. To recommend correction of an error or remove
  an injustice in the record of a Navy member
• C. Both A and B above
• D. To act as the Navy's quality control board
  for determining the suitability of members for
  retention in the service
• Answer A
• 360-6-2-13

54
The watch, quarter, and station bill contains
which of the following assignments?

• A. Messing assignments
• B. Liberty boat assignments
• C. Collision station assignments
• D. Each of the above
• Answer A
• 400-6-4-46

55
Which of the following duties is the
responsibility of the division safety petty
officer?

• A. To conduct training and maintain training
  records
• B. To assist in mishap investigations as
  directed
• C. To represent the division at the command
  safety committee
• D. Each of the above
• Answer D
• 417-6-5-53

Exit
56
Which of the following publications outlines the
command safety program and the safety
organization?

• A. Standard Organization and Regulations of the
  U.S. Navy
• B. U.S. Navy Safety Precautions Manual
• C. Navy Safety Precautions for Forces Afloat
• D. Navy Occupational Safety and Health Program
• Answer A
• 418-6-5-57

57
Which of the following types of warfare assists
in detecting and targeting hostile forces and
making it more difficult for the enemy to detect
and target friendly forces?

• A. Special
• B. Electronic
• C. Intelligence
• D. Ocean surveillance
• Answer B
• 347-6-1-27

58
Which of the following schedules allows for
losses in manpower, logistic problems, work
stoppages, and personnel training?

• A. Work center schedule
• B. Annual employment schedule
• C. Planning board for training
• D. Quarterly employment schedule
• Answer A
• 354-6-1-54

59
Nonjudicial punishment is better known in the
Navy by which of the following titles?

• A. Mast
• B. Court-Martial
• C. Captain mast
• D. Executive officers investigation
• Answer C
• 379-6-3-24

60
A person who has taken an overdose of cocaine may
experience which of the following reactions?

• A. Death
• B. Anxiety
• C. Euphoria
• D. Excitation
• Answer A
• 385-6-3-48

Exit
61
When planning for a disaster response, your
activity should first be concerned with which of
the following considerations?

• A. Survival of the community
• B. The activity's own survival
• C. Type of communications needed
• D. Type of communications available
• Answer B
• 448-6-7-69

62
If an underwater shock is expected, which of the
following actions should you take to reduce the
potential for personal injuries?

• A. Lie prone on the deck
• B. Curl up on the deck and cover your face
• C. Hold on to a solid structure, flex your
  knees, and rest on the balls of your feet
• D. Stand clear of all structures and watch for
  flying objects
• Answer C
• 444-6-7-51

63
You have certain rights and responsibilities
concerning your evaluation. Which of the
following publications would you use for detailed
information about your rights?

• A. U.S. Navy Regulations
• B. Naval Military Personnel Manual
• C. Career Information Program Management
• D. Standard Organization and Regulations of the
  U.S. Navy
• Answer A
• 359-6-2-9

64
What are the three fundamental pillars on which
United States military strategy rests?

• A. Maritime superiority, deterrence, and
  alliance solidarity
• B. Control of the seas, deterrence, and forward
  defense
• C. Deterrence, forward defense, and alliance
  solidarity
• D. Forward defense, control of the seas, and
  alliance solidarity
• Answer C
• 343-6-1-5

65
What article of the UCMJ allows nonjudicial
punishment to be awarded?

• A. Article 7
• B. Article 15
• C. Article 29
• D. Article 134
• Answer B
• 395-6-4-29

Exit
66
Which of the following personnel has the
authority to administer nonjudicial punishment?

• A. Chief petty officer
• B. Petty officer who is E-6 and above
• C. Executive officer
• D. Commanding officer
• Answer D
• 396-6-4-30

67
When rendering first aid to a victim, you should
check the person for breathing, shock, and
hemorrhage in what order?

• A. Hemorrhage, breathing, shock
• B. Breathing, hemorrhage, shock
• C. Shock, breathing, hemorrhage
• D. Hemorrhage, shock, breathing
• Answer B
• 440-6-7-35

68
Which of the following forms can be used to
document a safety observation or a JSA?

• A. OPNAV Form 1348/6
• B. OPNAV Form 5100/14
• C. A locally prepared form
• D. Either 2 or 3 above
• Answer B
• 421-6-6-3

69
What is the most flexible element of the TRIAD?

• A. Intercontinental ballistic missiles
• B. Sea-launched ballistic missiles
• C. Long-range bombers
• D. Cruise missiles
• Answer C
• 344-6-1-10

70
What is the purpose of a NAVGRAM?

• A. Urgent communications between DOD addressees
• B. To ensure priority handling of the
  communication by the addressee
• C. To transmit urgent correspondence by
  electrical means
• D. To ensure special handling by postal
  authorities
• Answer A
• 373-6-2-70

Exit
71
A page 13 entry reflects which of the following
types of job performance?

• A. Average
• B. Good
• C. Bad
• D. Both B and C above
• Answer D
• 357-6-1-70

72
Who must approve the removal of asbestos
insulation aboard ship?

• A. Damage control assistant
• B. Commanding officer
• C. Engineer officer
• D. Safety officer
• Answer B
• 425-6-6-14

73
Block 39 of the performance evaluation is the
overall evaluation mark assigned to assess the
member's overall value to the Navy. What
determines the grade assigned in this block?

• A. The average of all assigned grades
• B. The overall assessment of the individual by
  the reporting senior
• C. The highest grade assigned in Personal Traits
• D. The lowest grade assigned in Professional
  Factors
• Answer B
• 364-6-2-29

74
What OPNAV instruction requires supervisors to
ensure that their personnel are aware of safety
precautions, the work site is safe, and personnel
are outfitted with protective clothing?

• A. 3120.3A
• B. 5100.19B
• C. 5100.23B
• D. 5100.12A
• Answer B
• 424-6-6-12

75
A heat stress survey should be conducted whenever
the work station dry-bulb reading exceeds what
temperature?

• A. 100 F
• B. 90 F
• C. 80 F
• D. 75 F
• Answer A
• 428-6-6-25

Exit
76
On which of the following dates are periodic
performance evaluations submitted for E-5
personnel?

• A. 30 September
• B. 30 April
• C. 31 March
• D. 31 January
• Answer C
• 362-6-2-24

77
A change in a ship's watch condition when getting
underway, mooring, or modifying the condition of
readiness is called?

• A. dogging the watch
• B. setting the watch
• C. changing the guard
• D. relieving the watch
• Answer B
• 408-6-5-20

78
To handle battle casualties, most ships have what
minimum number of battle dressing stations?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four
• Answer B
• 437-6-7-23

79
During general quarters which of the following
persons is/are responsible for setting material
condition Zebra in manned spaces?

• A. Damage control assistant
• B. Personnel in the space
• C. Repair party leader
• D. On-scene leader
• Answer B
• 436-6-7-21

80
When placed in a survival situation, what
publication(s) give(s) the senior person the
authority to be in charge?

• A. Code of Conduct
• B. Navy Regulations
• C. Both A and B above
• D. Secret ballot voting
• Answer C
• 430-6-6-31

Exit
81
Navywide advancement exams are based on which of
the following standards?

• A. PQS standards
• B. PMS standards
• C. Naval standards
• D. Occupational standards
• Answer D
• 405-6-5-4

82
In a contaminated ship, which of the following
types of radiation is the most significant
radiation hazard?

• A. Alpha particles
• B. Beta particles
• C. Gamma rays
• D. All of the above
• Answer C
• 446-6-7-54

83
Your rights are found under what UCMJ article?

• A. 15
• B. 31
• C. 37
• D. 38
• Answer B
• 380-6-3-29

84
When you attend department meetings, remember to
check which of the following factors before the
meeting?

• A. Assess personnel
• B. Work progress
• C. Organizing
• D. Planning
• Answer B
• 355-6-1-62

85
In a prisoner of war camp, the senior line
officer or non-commissioned officer (NCO) assumes
command of fellow prisoners without regard to
branch of service. If this senior officer or NCO
becomes incapacitated for any reason, who, if
anyone, assumes command?

• A. No one
• B. Any staff-NCO
• C. The next senior person
• D. The junior enlisted person
• Answer C
• 431-6-6-44

Exit
86
To manage and supervise people effectively, you
must have which of the following leadership
skills?

• A. The ability to ignore conflicts among various
  groups
• B. The ability to listen to and understand what
  people have to say
• C. The ability to place people in correct
  racial, ethnic, and religious categories
• D. The ability to substitute generalized ideas
  about people when you aren't sure of their
  motives
• Answer B
• 377-6-3-17

87
When you assess your workers' job performance,
you should look at which of the following areas?

• A. Knowledge, work habits, and character
• B. Attitude, knowledge, and work habits
• C. Attitude, work habits, and character
• D. Attitude, knowledge, and character
• Answer B
• 351-6-1-45

88
Which, if any, of the following classified
material does not require controlled routing?

• A. Confidential
• B. Top Secret
• C. Secret
• D. None of the above
• Answer A
• 374-6-3-2

89
What inspection is scheduled by higher authority,
without the knowledge of the commanding officer,
to determine if the ship is fit for continued
naval service?

• A. INSURV
• B. PEB
• C. ORI
• D. PMS
• Answer A
• 349-6-1-38

90
If weather conditions are such that suspending
boating operations is advisable, what officer
does the OOD immediately notify?

• A. Safety officer
• B. Boating officer
• C. First lieutenant
• D. Command duty officer
• Answer D
• 410-6-5-28

Exit
91
If a group is to survive, it must be highly
organized therefore, each person must be
assigned tasks based on which of the following
criteria?

• A. The desires of the leader
• B. The results of secret ballot votes
• C. The feelings of the group at the time
• D. The personal qualifications of each person
• Answer D
• 432-6-6-52

92
According to NAVOSH regulations, you are required
to immediately report all observed workplace
hazards to which of the following persons?

• A. Supervisor
• B. Executive officer
• C. Commanding officer
• D. Safety petty officer
• Answer A
• 423-6-6-9

93
If you see the sky light up from a nuclear
detonation, what is the first action you should
take?

• A. Close your eyes
• B. Drop to the deck
• C. Flex your knees
• D. Grab a solid structure
• Answer A
• 445-6-7-52

94
What should be your first concern in drafting
correspondence?

• A. Format
• B. Purpose
• C. Distribution
• D. Security classification
• Answer B
• 371-6-2-61

95
Quarters for muster and inspection are held each
work day just before?

• A. 0600
• B. 0700
• C. 0800
• D. 0900
• Answer C
• 407-6-5-16

Exit
96
If your ship is assigned to the Second Fleet, it
would probably conduct refresher training at
which of the following locations?

• A. Guantanamo Bay, Cuba
• B. San Diego, CA
• C. Bremerton, WA
• D. Norfolk, VA
• Answer A
• 348-6-1-35

97
Who is responsible for the validation of the
contents of a message?

• A. Originator
• B. Addressee
• C. Releaser
• D. Drafter
• Answer C
• 368-6-2-47

98
To be an on-scene leader, you should be qualified
in which of the following areas?

• A. Investigator
• B. Fire fighting
• C. Damage control repair
• D. Each of the above
• Answer D
• 438-6-7-26

99
The equipment deficiency list contains all of the
following information except

• A. When it was discovered and the action taken
• B. The space and space location
• C. The problem or deficiency
• D. The PMS requirements
• Answer D
• 353-6-1-50

100
Which of the following components of a nuclear
weapon constitutes the most probable hazards in
the most probable hazards in the event of an
accident?

• A. Radiation and plutonium
• B. Radiation and gamma rays
• C. High explosives and plutonium
• D. High explosives and gamma rays
• Answer C
• 442-6-7-42

Exit
101
Which of the following persons is responsible for
training division personnel in mishap prevention?

• A. Leading petty officer
• B. Safety petty officer
• C. Training petty officer
• D. Damage control petty officer
• Answer B
• 416-6-5-52

102
An element that enables a sea-dependent nation to
project its political, economic, and military
strengths seaward is known as

• A. Sea power
• B. Naval power
• C. Global strategy
• D. National strategy
• Answer A
• 342-6-1-1

103
In general, safe working conditions cannot be
achieved by one person or one program. Which of
the following efforts is required to achieve
mishap-free working conditions?

• A. The support of all hands
• B. Effective safety monitors
• C. An effective safety program
• D. An active safety petty officer
• Answer A
• 419-6-5-58

104
When writing a naval letter, you should ensure it
is well organized and orderly. Which of the
following writing methods is NOT is the correct
order?

• A. Stating requests before justifications
• B. Stating explanations before answers
• C. Giving conclusions before discussions
• D. Giving summaries before details
• Answer B
• 375-6-3-5

105
Which of the following persons must have prior
knowledge of a drug detection dog inspection or
search?

• A. The dog handler
• B. The commanding officer
• C. Both A and B above
• D. All personnel involved in the search
• Answer C
• 388-6-3-59

Exit
106
Who is directly responsible for the commanding
officer for the posting of all security watches
and sentries?

• A. Officer of the deck
• B. Command duty officer
• C. Sergeant of the guard
• D. Petty officer of the watch
• Answer A
• 414-6-5-44

107
When making duty assignments such as general
quarters stations or a cleaning station, who
should be assigned responsibility for that duty?

• A. A specific work center
• B. A specific person
• C. The department
• D. The division
• Answer B
• 398-6-4-38

108
At which of the following times is the
performance evaluation considered final and no
further changes are permitted?

• A. After the member signs the report
• B. After the report is submitted to BUPERS
• C. After the commanding officer signs the report
• D. After counseling the member on adverse
  remarks
• Answer B
• 361-6-2-16

109
Why has the Navy taken a firm stand against drug
abuse?

• A. Drug abuse undermines combined readiness
• B. Drug abuse is costly in lost man-hours
• C. Drug abuse causes the loss of morale and
  esprit de corps
• D. Each of the above
• Answer D
• 382-6-3-38

Exit