Exam 3 review

1

• Exam 3 review

2
Ch. 13

• The fossil record shows all of following except
  that  
• A) the first life forms were eukaryotes.  
• B) the earliest fossils of life are about 3.5
  billion years old.  
• C) younger strata are on top of older strata.  
• D) within the vertebrates, fish were the first to
  evolve.  
• E) some fossils represent an evolutionary series
  of changes that provide strong documentation of
  evolution.

3

• Which of the following constitutes a basic,
  modern definition of a sexually reproducing
  species?  
• A) a group of individuals living in the same
  place at the same time  
• B) a group of individuals who resemble each
  other, on average, more than they resemble
  anything else  
• C) a group of populations whose members can
  interbreed and produce fertile offspring  
• D) a group of individuals who interbreed  
• E) the smallest unit that can engage in
  microevolution

4

• Which of the following conditions would tend to
  make the Hardy-Weinberg equation more accurate
  for predicting the gene frequencies of future
  generations in a population of a sexually
  reproducing species?  
• A) a small population size  
• B) little gene flow with surrounding populations
   
• C) a tendency on the part of females to mate with
  the healthiest males  
• D) the existence of directional selection  
• E) mutations that alter the gene pool

5

• A population of 1,000 birds exists on a small
  Pacific island. Some of the birds are yellow, a
  characteristic determined by a recessive allele.
  The others are green, a characteristic determined
  by a dominant allele. A hurricane on the island
  kills most of the birds from this population.
  Only ten remain, and those birds all have yellow
  feathers. Which of the following statements is
  true?  
• A) Assuming that no new birds come to the island
  and no mutations occur, future generations of
  this population will contain both green and
  yellow birds.  
• B) The hurricane has caused a population
  bottleneck.  
• C) This situation illustrates the principle of
  adaptive radiation.  
• D) This situation illustrates the founder effect.
   
• E) The ten remaining birds will mate only with
  each other, and this will contribute to gene flow
  in the population.

6

• Certain whale species were hunted to near
  extinction. With a moratorium on hunting them,
  their population sizes have expanded. Which of
  the following is true?  
• A) Whale species have a high reproductive rate.  
• B) The populations may still be endangered
  because they may have little remaining genetic
  variation.  
• C) Hunting can "refresh" a whale species and
  increase its overall fitness.  
• D) The populations have recovered and have
  demonstrated that populations have the potential
  to recover completely from being driven to near
  extinction.  
• E) Hunting is a form of stabilizing selection.

7

• Fitness increases when an organism  
• A) passes on a greater proportion of its genes to
  the next generation.  
• B) survives many hardships.  
• C) is stronger than the other organisms in its
  community.  
• D) lives for a long time.  
• E) is disease-free.

8

• Long-legged cheetahs are well adapted to catching
  prey. The ancestor of the cheetah is believed to
  have had relatively short legs. According to
  Darwinian views, the evolution of long-legged
  cheetahs is best explained by  
• A) stabilizing selection.  
• B) disruptive selection.  
• C) directional selection.  
• D) the theory of acquired characteristics.  
• E) heterozygote advantage.

9
Ch. 14

• Speciation can occur as a result of reproductive
  isolation. Reproductive isolation can occur when
  individuals in two populations of organisms  
• A) can't mate with each other because mating
  occurs at different times.  
• B) mate with each other but produce offspring
  that are nonviable.  
• C) use different types of behaviors to attract
  mates.  
• D) have anatomical features that make it
  difficult for organisms from the different
  populations to mate and transfer sex cells.  
• E) All of the choices are correct.

10

• Which of the following types of reproductive
  barriers separates two species that occasionally
  mate but in whom the sperm do not produce the
  right enzymes to enter the egg?  
• A) temporal isolation  
• B) habitat isolation  
• C) behavioral isolation  
• D) mechanical isolation  
• E) gametic isolation

11

• Two species interbreed occasionally and produce
  vigorous, fertile hybrids. When the hybrids breed
  with each other or with either parent species,
  however, the offspring are feeble or sterile.
  These species are separated by  
• A) gametic isolation.  
• B) hybrid sterility.  
• C) hybrid inviability.  
• D) hybrid breakdown.  
• E) hybrid competition.

12

• A mountain range divides a freshwater snail
  species into two isolated populations. Erosion
  eventually lowers the range and brings the two
  populations together again, but when they mate,
  the resulting hybrids all produce sterile young.
  This scenario is an example of  
• A) sympatric speciation.  
• B) allopatric speciation.  
• C) incipient speciation.  
• D) gradualism.  
• E) punctuated equilibrium.

13

• When a tetraploid plant pollinates a diploid
  plant of the parental species, what will be the
  ploidy of the resulting zygote?  
• A) pentaploid  
• B) diploid  
• C) triploid  
• D) haploid  
• E) tetraploid

14

• Which of the following descriptions best
  represents the gradualism model of speciation?  
• A) Speciation occurs as a result of the
  accumulation of many small changes.  
• B) An isolated population differentiates quickly
  from its parent stock as it adapts to its local
  environment.  
• C) Species evolve rapidly in response to a
  quickly changing environment and then change
  little over longer periods of time.  
• D) Species undergo little change over long
  periods interrupted only by short periods of
  rapid change.  
• E) Species undergo little change over long
  periods interrupted only by short periods when
  they split and new species are formed.

15
Ch.15

• The technique called radiometric dating is based
  on  
• A) the type of plant material that an animal
  consumed.  
• B) the measurement of certain radioactive
  isotopes contained in fossils.  
• C) the amount of moisture found in the atmosphere
  when an organism dies.  
• D) None of the choices are correct.

16

• Which of the following is the process by which
  species not closely related may come to resemble
  one another if they live in a similar
  environment?  
• A) coevolution  
• B) convergent evolution  
• C) similar evolution  
• D) parallel evolution  
• E) neoteny

17

• Structures that evolved from the same structure
  in an ancestor are  
• A) homologous.  
• B) heterologous.  
• C) analogous.  
• D) homoplasies.  
• E) None of the choices are correct.

18
Ch. 20

• Which one of the following is not a major
  category of animal tissue?  
• A) epithelial  
• B) connective  
• C) muscle  
• D) cardiac  
• E) nervous

19

• A main function of most types of epithelial
  tissue is  
• A) sensation.  
• B) support.  
• C) contraction.  
• D) covering surfaces.  
• E) absorption.

20

• Imagine an invertebrate that lives in an estuary
  where salinity varies cyclically with the tides.
  If this animal practices homeostasis with respect
  to the salt concentration of its body fluids, its
  salt concentration will show  
• A) no variations.  
• B) slight fluctuation that are kept within a
  narrow range.  
• C) regular variations that range from large to
  small.  
• D) a cyclic variation similar to that of the
  surrounding water.  
• E) a cyclic variation depending upon when the
  animal drinks.

21

• Which of the following imaging techniques makes
  it possible to see which areas of the brain are
  active during particular types of mental
  activity?  
• A) computerized tomography  
• B) X-ray imaging  
• C) magnetic resonance imaging  
• D) positron-emission tomography  
• E) X-ray tomography

22

• Which one of the following is not a part of the
  lymphatic and immune systems?  
• A) bone marrow  
• B) lymph nodes  
• C) pancreas  
• D) spleen  
• E) thymus

23
Ch. 21

• All animals must obtain  
• A) essential nutrients.  
• B) fuel to power all body activities.  
• C) organic raw materials to make the animal's own
  molecules.  
• D) All of the choices are correct.  
• E) None of the choices are correct.

24

• Which of the following nutrients does not begin
  undergoing digestion until it reaches the small
  intestine?  
• A) fat  
• B) protein  
• C) starch  
• D) complex carbohydrate  
• E) polypeptide

25

• Which of the following is the usual cause of
  heartburn?  
• A) secretion of acid by the lining of the lower
  esophagus  
• B) reflux of acid chyme from the stomach into the
  lower esophagus  
• C) retention of food at the bottom of the
  esophagus by a sphincter that is reluctant to
  open  
• D) irritation of the lower esophagus by
  substances in spicy food  
• E) compression of the lower esophagus by an
  overfilled stomach

26

• Human saliva performs all of the following
  functions except  
• A) lubricating food.  
• B) neutralizing food acids.  
• C) controlling bacterial populations.  
• D) hydrolyzing starch.  
• E) hydrolyzing proteins.

27
Ch. 24

• Which of the following is one of the body's
  innate defenses against infection?
• A) several nonspecific antibodies
• B) several nonspecific amino acid toxins
• C) barriers such as dead skin cells and mucus
• D) increased production of certain hormones and
  changes in microcirculation
• E) None of the choices are correct.

28

• Which of the following, produced by
  virus-infected cells, diffuses to neighboring
  cells to help them fight a viral infection?
• A) lysozyme
• B) interferon
• C) histamine
• D) antigen
• E) interleukin-2

29

• All effector mechanisms involve
• A) a specific recognition and attack phase
  followed by a nonspecific destruction phase.
• B) a nonspecific recognition and attack phase
  followed by a specific destruction phase.
• C) a destruction phase followed by a recognition
  phase.
• D) an agglutination phase followed by a
  precipitation phase.
• E) an agglutination phase followed by a
  neutralization phase.

30

• __________ can destroy cancerous cells.
• A) Macrophages
• B) Plasma cells
• C) Monocytes
• D) B cells
• E) Cytotoxic T cells

31
Ch. 34

• The sum of all Earth's ecosystems is called the  
• A) stratosphere.  
• B) lithosphere.  
• C) biosphere.  
• D) hydrosphere.  
• E) troposphere.

32

• In terms of global air circulation, the tropics
  are a region where air  
• A) descends and warms, dropping rain.  
• B) descends and warms, creating an arid belt.  
• C) rises and warms, creating an arid belt.  
• D) rises and cools, creating an arid belt.  
• E) rises and cools, dropping rain.

33

• A sperm whale in the middle of the Atlantic Ocean
  is in which oceanic zone?  
• A) intertidal  
• B) benthic  
• C) neritic  
• D) pelagic  
• E) estuarine

34

• Fresh water and seawater mix in a(n)  
• A) pelagic zone.  
• B) estuary.  
• C) benthic zone.  
• D) limnetic zone.  
• E) littoral zone.

35

• Which one of the following statements about
  tropical forests is false?  
• A) Tropical forests occur in equatorial regions
  with 11-12 hour days.  
• B) In tropical regions with distinct wet and dry
  seasons, tropical deciduous trees and shrubs are
  common.  
• C) Once stripped, tropical rain forests regrow
  quickly, although with slightly less diversity.  
• D) Vertical stratification provides many
  different habitats in tropical rain forests.  
• E) The soils of tropical rain forests are
  typically very nutrient poor.

36

• The major factor in tropical deforestation is  
• A) hurricane destruction of large regions.  
• B) governments of developing countries selling
  off land to earn cash.  
• C) people clearing forests to open agricultural
  lands.  
• D) governments clearing forests to build cities.
   
• E) natural succession as global warming occurs.  

37
Ch. 37

• A community is made up of  
• A) potentially interacting populations of
  different kinds of organisms.  
• B) one species of organism living in one
  particular environment on Earth.  
• C) living organisms and their nonliving
  environment.  
• D) several ecosystems on one continent.  
• E) the factors that constitute an organism's
  niche.

38

• The number of species in a community is called
  the  
• A) species diversity.  
• B) community.  
• C) species richness.  
• D) species population.  
• E) species index.

39

• The feeding relationships among the species of a
  community is the community's  
• A) niche.  
• B) diversity.  
• C) density.  
• D) richness.  
• E) trophic structure.

40

• According to the competitive exclusion principle,
  two species cannot continue to occupy the same  
• A) environmental habitat.  
• B) ecological niche.  
• C) territory.  
• D) range.  
• E) biome.

41

• Which of the following is an example of Batesian
  mimicry?  
• A) the resemblance of a harmless fly to a bee  
• B) the resemblance of the walking-stick insect (a
  kind of mantis) to the twigs of a tree  
• C) the resemblance of an African sunbird to a
  Central American hummingbird that occupies a
  similar niche  
• D) the resemblance of the western meadowlark to
  the eastern meadowlark  
• E) the similar appearance and black-and-gold
  coloration of many wasps

42

• The relationship between a cow and the
  cellulose-digesting bacteria in the rumen of its
  gut would best be described as  
• A) predation.  
• B) parasitism.  
• C) mutualism.  
• D) commensalism.  
• E) interspecific competition.

43

• In a food chain consisting of phytoplankton ?
  zooplankton ? fish ? fishermen, the fishermen are
   
• A) primary consumers.  
• B) secondary consumers.  
• C) tertiary consumers.  
• D) primary producers.  
• E) secondary producers.

44

• In an average ecosystem, about how much energy is
  present in the organisms at a given trophic level
  compared to the organisms at the next higher
  trophic level?  
• A) a tenth as much  
• B) half as much  
• C) twice as much  
• D) ten times as much  
• E) It is impossible to say without knowing which
  trophic levels are involved.

45

• Which of the following frequently cycles through
  the environment, bypassing biotic components and
  relying completely on geological processes?  
• A) carbon  
• B) nitrogen  
• C) water  
• D) nitrogen and carbon  
• E) carbon and nitrogen

46
Ch. 38

• The primary goal of conservation biology is to  
• A) estimate the total number of species that
  exist.  
• B) catalogue species.  
• C) maximize the land set aside for wildlife.  
• D) integrate human culture back into nature.  
• E) counter the loss of biodiversity.

47

• The single greatest threat to biodiversity is  
• A) global warming.  
• B) habitat destruction.  
• C) the introduction of exotic species.  
• D) overpopulation.  
• E) overexploitation of populations for food.

48

• The current rate of extinction may be as much as
  ____ times higher than at any other time in the
  past 100,000 years.  
• A) 10  
• B) 100  
• C) 1,000  
• D) 10,000  
• E) 5,000,000

49

• The increase in the concentration of a substance
  in the tissues of organisms as it is passed up a
  food chain is called  
• A) concentration of toxins.  
• B) biological magnification.  
• C) maximization.  
• D) incrementalization.  
• E) predatory accumulation.

50

• Which one of the following, if any, is not likely
  to result from an increase in global atmospheric
  temperature of as little as 2C?  
• A) rising sea levels  
• B) coastal flooding  
• C) altered patterns of global rainfall  
• D) altered patterns of farming  
• E) All of the choices are likely to result from
  an increase in global atmospheric temperature of
  as  
• little as 2C.

51

• Small areas that exhibit exceptionally high
  species diversity are referred to as  
• A) biologically magnified.  
• B) endemic environments.  
• C) biodiverse environments.  
• D) biodiversity hot spots.  
• E) exotic hot spots.

52

• The aspect of conservation ecology concerned with
  returning degraded ecosystems (as nearly as
  possible) to their predegraded state is  
• A) ecosystem augmentation ecology.  
• B) bioremediation.  
• C) sustainable development.  
• D) restoration ecology.  
• E) landscape ecology.

53
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