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VNM utility and Risk Aversion

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Title: VNM utility and Risk Aversion


1
VNM utility and Risk Aversion
  • The desire of investors to avoid risk, that is
    variations in the value of their portfolio of
    holdings or to smooth their consumption across
    states of nature is a primary motive for
    financial contracting
  • Now we use the VNM framework and place some
    restrictions on it to capture some elements of
    risk

2
What does the term risk aversion mean about an
agents utility function?
  • Consider a financial contract where the potential
    investor either receives an amount h with
    probability pr ½ or must pay an amount h with
    probability pr ½

3
We would not accept this offer
  • The most basic sense of risk aversion implies
    that for any level of wealth, W, a risk-averse
    investor would not wish to own such a security
  • In utility terms, this proposition means
  • U(W) gt 1/2U(W h) 1/2U(W h) expected
    utility, where
  • 1/2U(W h) 1/2U(W h) VNM utility

4
Risk aversion and utility
  • U(W) gt 1/2U(W h) 1/2U(W h) says
  • that the slope of the utility function decreases
    as the agent becomes wealthier
  • The marginal utility, d(U(W))/d(W), decreases
    with increasing W
  • d(U(W))/d(W) gt 0
  • d2(U(W))/d(W)2 ? 0
  • this is similar to our utility properties
    discussion

5
Measuring Risk Aversion
The utility of the linear combination is greater
than the linear combination
U(W)
U0.5(Wh) 0.5(W-h) gt 0.5U(Wh) 0.5U(W-h)
U(W h)
U0.5(Wh) 0.5(W-h)
0.5U(Wh) 0.5U(W-h)
U(W h)
W-h W Wh
W
6
The Arrow-Pratt Measures of Risk Aversion
  • Absolute risk aversion
  • - U??(W)/U?(W) RA(W)
  • Relative risk aversion
  • -WU??(W)/U?(W) RR(W)
  • Risk aversion means U?(W) gt 0 and U??(W) ? 0 with
    U? first derivative (slope) and U?? second
    derivative or change in slope
  • The inverse of these measures gives a measure of
    risk tolerance

7
The risk averse concept
  • We learned earlier, that a risk averse investor
    will not accept the proposition
  • 1/2U(W h) 1/2U(W h), since U(W) gt 1/2U(W
    h) 1/2U(W h)
  • That is U(W) gt prU(W h) (1-pr)U(W h) for h
    some payoff or payout
  • So what odds of the combination of payoff or
    payout will they accept?

8
  • But note that any investor will accept such a bet
    if pr is high enough, particularly if pr 1
  • And reject the offer if pr is small, and surely
    reject if pr 0
  • The willingness to accept this opportunity
    presumably is related to the level of current
    wealth

9
  • Let pr pr(W, h) be the probability at which an
    agent is indifferent between accepting or
    rejecting the investment
  • It can be shown (using mathematics of more
    advanced finance) that
  • pr(W, h) ½ 1/4hRA(W)
  • The higher the measure of absolute risk aversion,
    RA(W), the more favorable odds the agent will
    demand to take up the offer

10
Comparing agents
  • If we have two investors, say A and B, and
  • If RA(W)A RA(W)B , then investor A will always
    demand more favorable odds than investor B
  • In this sense, investor A is more risk averse

11
An Example
  • Consider the family of VNM utility-in-money
    functions of the form
  • U(W) -(1/v)e(-vW) the exponential utility
    function for v a parameter
  • For this case, pr(W,h) ½ 1/4hv
  • Since RA(W) -U??/U? -ve(-vW)/(-v/-v)e(-vW)
    v by just forming the ratio of the appropriate
    second and first derivatives of this utility
    function

12
  • So the odds requested by an agent with this type
    of preference (utility) are independent of the
    initial level of wealth, W
  • On the other hand, the more wealth at risk (h),
    the greater the odds of a favorable outcome
    demanded

13
  • This expression advances the parameter, v, as the
    natural measure of the degree of risk aversion
    appropriate to this set of preferences (utility
    function)
  • Lets try another set of preferences such as the
    logarithmic utility function given by Ln(W)

14
  • Again, RA(W) -U??/U?, but this gives us
  • RA(W) 1/W, if we take the appropriate second
    and first derivatives of Ln(W)
  • Why? -U??/U? -(-1/W2 )/(1/W) 1/W
  • So pr(W,h) ½ 1/4hRA(W)
  • ½ 1/4h(1/W), or ½ (¼)h/W
  • So in this case, the odds that the agent must
    have are related to h relative to initial wealth,
    W

15
Risk that is a proportion of the investors wealth
  • In this case, h ?W, where ? is some constant
    of proportionality, like 0.3 or 0.5, in which the
    payoff or the payment would be 30 or 50 of
    wealth
  • Now, pr(W,?) represents the odds that an investor
    would have to have to take up an offer such as we
    have been representing as 1/2U(W h) 1/2U(W
    h), if the investor is risk averse

16
  • By a derivation similar to the pr(W,h) case
    (using advanced mathematics in finance)
  • Pr(W,?) ½ 1/4?RR(W)
  • Or the odds are a function of the degree of risk
    of wealth, ?, and the measure of relative risk
    aversion (not absolute risk aversion as in the
    previous case)

17
An example
  • Now let the utility function be given by a
    somewhat more complicated utility function as
  • U(W) W(1-?)/(1-?), for ? being a parameter
    that is greater than 1
  • Just a note here--- if ? 1, then U(W) Ln(W),
    like the last example
  • This general function is also a VNM utility
    function

18
  • In the general case for ? gt 1, we find RR(W) -
    WU??/U? -W(-?W(-?-1))/W-? -(-?W/W) ?, by
    taking the appropriate second and first
    derivatives of the utility function
  • So pr(W,?) ½ 1/4?? are the odds that an
    investor has to have in order take up the
    proposition of an investment that gives a payoff
    and also can require a payment -- h

19
  • In this case, the investor demands a probability
    of success that is related to the proportion of
    wealth at risk and the utility parameter ?, and ?
    gt 1
  • Furthermore, if there are two investors, A and B,
    and ?A gt ?B, the investor with ? ?A will always
    demand a higher probability of success than will
    investor B with ? ?B, for the same fraction, ?,
    of wealth at risk

20
  • In this sense, a higher ? denotes a greater
    degree of risk aversion for this investor class
  • Now, with the case of ? 1, the probability
    expression pr(W, ?) , becomes pr(W, ?) ½ 1/4?
  • In which case the requested odds of winning a
    payoff are not a function of initial wealth, W

21
  • The odds in this case depend on the proportion of
    wealth that is at risk
  • The lower is the fraction of wealth that is at
    risk (the lower is ?), the more investors are
    willing to consider entering into a fair bet ( a
    risky opportunity where the probabilities of
    success or failure are both ½) as in the
    investment 1/2U(W h) 1/2U(W h)

22
  • But in the case where ? gt1 ----- then pr(W, ?)
    ½ 1/4??, where ? gt1, the investors demand
    higher probability of success than in the case
    where ? 1

23
The odds have to be greater than even to accept,
under risk aversion
  • Under the assumption of risk aversion, then what
    we have been developing is the fact that a risk
    averse investor has to have greater than even
    odds to accept a proposition of 1/2U(W h)
    1/2U(W h), which is even odds of a payoff
    versus a payment

24
Risk neutral investors
  • One class of investors demands special mention
    --- these are the risk neutral investors (like
    banks in some cases)
  • This class of investors has considerable
    influence on the financial equilibria in which
    they participate
  • This class of investor is identified with utility
    functions of linear form U(W) cW d, for c, d
    constants and c gt 0

25
  • Both of our measures of risk aversion give the
    same results for this class of investor
  • RA(W) 0 RR(W)
  • Whether measured as a proportion of wealth or as
    an absolute amount of money at risk, these
    investors do not demand better than even odds
    when considering risky investments of the type we
    have been considering

26
  • This class of investors are indifferent to risk
  • They are only concerned with an assets expected
    payoff
  • Depending on the portfolio under consideration,
    it is generally considered that banks belong to
    this class --- they certainly do have weight in
    the conditions of financial equilibrium

27
Prospect Theory
  • UNDER VNM EXPECTED UTILITY, THE UTILITY FUNCTION
    IS DEFINED OVER ACTUAL PAYOFF OUTCOMES
  • UNDER PROSPECT THEORY, PREFERENCES ARE DEFINED,
    NOT OVER ACTUAL PAYOFFS, BUT RATHER OVER GAINS
    AND LOSSES RELATIVE TO SOME BENCHMARK

28
UTILITY FUNCTION FOR PROSPECT THEORY
UTILITY
50
0 --
- 150 - 200
1000 W?
WEALTH W
29
INVESTORS UTILITY FUNCTION
  • U(W) (W - W?)(1 - ?1)/(1-?1), IF W gt W?
  • AND,
  • U(W) -?(W-W?)(1-?2)/(1-?2), IF Wlt W?
  • W? DENOTES THE BENCHMARK PAYOFF
  • ? gt 1 CAPTURES THE EXTENT OF THE INVESTORS
    AVERSION TO LOSSES RELATIVE TO BENCHMARK
  • ?1 AND ?2 NEED NOT COINCIDE

30
  • SO THE CURVATURE MAY DIFFER FOR DEVIATIONS ABOVE
    AND BELOW THE BENCHMARK
  • SO THE PARAMETERS COULD HAVE A LARGE IMPACT ON
    THE RELATIVE RANKING OF UNCERTAIN INVESTMENT
    PAYOFF

31
  • NOT ALL TRANSACTIONS ARE AFFECTED BY LOSS
    AVERSION SINCE, IN NORMAL CIRCUMSTANCES, ONE DOES
    NOT SUFFER A LOSS IN TRADING A GOOD
  • BUT AN INVESTORS WILLINGNESS TO HOLD A FINANCIAL
    ASSET SUCH AS STOCKS MAY BE SIGNIFICANTLY
    AFFECTED IF LOSSES HAVE BEEN EXPERIENCED IN PRIOR
    PERIODS
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