Airports, Airspace

1
Airports, Airspace ATC
2
Runway Taxi Markings

• What color are all runway markings?

3
Runway Taxi Markings

• What color are all runway markings?
• White

4
Runway Taxi Markings

• What color are all taxiways, closed areas,
  hazardous areas and holding positions?

5
Runway Taxi Markings

• What color are all taxiways, closed areas,
  hazardous areas and holding positions?
• Yellow

6
Taxiway Marking

• Provides a visual cue to permit taxiing along
  a designated path. Marking may be enhanced on
  light-colored pavement by outlining with a black
  border.

7
Runway Taxi Markings

• What are the three types of usage that determine
  how a runway will be marked?

8
Runway Taxi Markings

• What are the three types of usage that determine
  how a runway will be marked?
• Visual Runway
• Nonprecision instrument runway
• Precision instrument runway

9
Runway Taxi Markings

• How is a visual runway marked?

10
VISUAL RUNWAY

• Designation marking
• Centerline marking
• Optional marking
• International commercial transport require
  threshold marking

11
VISUAL RUNWAY

• Optional Marking
• 4,000 ft or longer used by jet aircraft require
  aiming point marking
• Side stripes may be added if necessary

12
Runway Taxi Markings

• How is a nonprecision instrument runway marked?

13
Runway Taxi Markings

• How is a nonprecision instrument runway marked?
• Designation marking
• Centerline marking
• Threshold markings
• Aim point marker

14
Runway Taxi Markings

• How is a precision instrument runway marked?

15
Runway Taxi Markings

• Designation marking
• Centerline marking
• Threshold markings
• Aim point marker
• Touchdown zone marker

16
Runway Taxi Markings

• What is a displaced threshold?

17
Runway Taxi Markings

• What is a displaced threshold?
• A threshold that is not at the beginning of the
  paved runway

18
Runway Taxi Markings

• For what purposes can you use the paved area
  before a displaced threshold that is marked by
  arrows?

19
Runway Taxi Markings

• Available for taxi, takeoff and a landing rollout
  from the opposite direction but not for landing

20
Runway Taxi Markings

• For what are chevrons used?

21
Runway Taxi Markings

• For what are chevrons used?
• To show pavement areas aligned with the runway
  that are unusable for landing, takeoff and taxiing

22
Runway Taxi Markings

• What is the name of the bar that separates a
  runway that has a displaced threshold from a
  taxiway or an area marked by chevrons that
  precedes the runway

23
Runway Taxi Markings

• What is the name of the bar that separates a
  runway that has a displaced threshold from a
  taxiway or an area marked by cheverons that
  precedes the runway
• Demarcation Bar

24
Runway Taxi Markings

• What color are surface painted location signs?

25
Runway Taxi Markings

• What color are surface painted location signs?
• Black background with yellow inscription

26
Runway Taxi Markings

• What color are mandatory instruction signs?

27
Runway Taxi Markings

• What color are mandatory instruction signs?
• White characters on a red background

28
AIRPORT SIGNS

• HOLDING POSITIONS SIGNS
• At runway / runway intersections
• Do not cross unless clearance has been received.

4-22
29
AIRPORT SIGNS
30
AIRPORT SIGNS

• Edge of Protected Area for Runway
• Identifies the boundary of the runway protected
  area
• Used to judge when the aircraft is clear of the
  protected area.

31
AIRPORT SIGNS
32
AIRPORT SIGNS

• Edge of ILS Critical Area
• Identifies the boundary of the ILS critical area.
• Use this sign as a guide to judge when the
  aircraft is clear of the ILS critical area.

33
Airport Lighting

• What type of Approach Light System are use on
  visual runway

34
Airport Lighting

• None
• ALS provide the basic means to transition from
  instrument flight to visual flight for landing.
  They will be used with precision and nonprecision
  runways.

35
Lighting

• What color are taxiway centerline lights
  installed at some airports and used during low
  visibility conditions?

36
Taxiway Centerline Lights

• Green in-pavement lights to assist taxiing
  aircraft in darkness and in low visibility
  conditions.

37
Lights

• Describe Runway End Identifier Lights and when
  they are effective?

38
Description

• Consists of a pair of synchronized flashing
  lights located laterally on each side of the
  runway threshold to provide rapid and positive
  identification of the approach end of a
  particular runway

39
Effective

• Effective for
• Identification of a runway surrounded by a
  preponderance of other lighting
• Identification of a runway which lacks contrast
  with surrounding terrain

40
Effective

• Identification of a runway during reduced
  visibility

41
Lights

• Describe land and hold short lights.

42
Land and Hold Short Lights

• In-pavement white, pulsating lights installed
  across the runway at the hold short point.

43
Lights

• When ON departing pilots and pilots cleared to
  land using the full length of the runway should
  ignore the lights

44
Lights

• How can you identify a rotating beacon at a
  military airport?

45
Lights

• How can you identify a rotating beacon at a
  military airport?
• Two whites and a green indicate a military airport

46
Lights

• What color do you see when above the glide slope
  on a tri-colored approach slope indicator?

47
Lights

• What color do you see when above the glide slope
  on a tri-colored approach slope indicator?
• Amber

48
Wake Turbulance

• In what configuration does an aircraft produce
  the most wake turbulence?

49
Wake Turbulence

• In what configuration does an aircraft produce
  the most wake turbulence?
• Clean, Slow and Heavy

50
Wake Turbulence

• When departing behind a large aircraft, what wind
  condition required the maximum amount of caution?

51
Wake Turbulence

• When departing behind a large aircraft, what wind
  condition required the maximum amount of caution?
• A light quartering tailwind

52
Wake Turbulence

• When a small aircraft makes an intersection take
  off on the same runway behind a large aircraft,
  how long an interval is ATC required to apply?

53
Wake Turbulence

• When a small aircraft makes an intersection take
  off on the same runway behind a large aircraft,
  how long an interval is ATC required to apply?
• 3 minutes
• Can this be waived?

54
Wake Turbulence

• Can this be waived?
• Yes, with a specific pilot request

55
Airports

• What is the difference between Unicom and
  Multicom?

56
Airports

• Unicom is a nongovernment air/ground radio
  communication station which provides airport
  advisories.

57
Airports

• Multicom is a self-announced procedure at
  airports without operating control towers that
  are not served by an FSS or Unicom

58
Airports

• What frequencies are usually used for Unicom?

59
Airports

• What frequencies are usually used for Unicom?
• 122.7 122.8 122.725 122.975 and 123.0
• What is the Multicom frequency?

60
Airports

• What is the Multicom frequency?
• 122.9

61
Transponder

• Above what altitude must you have Mode C unless
  you are within 2,500 feet of the surface?

62
Transponder

• Above what altitude must you have Mode C unless
  you are within 2,500 feet of the surface?
• 10,000 feet

63
Airspace

• What is the minimum ceiling and visibility for
  operating within the lateral boundaries of the
  surface areas of Class B, C, D and E airspace
  designated for an airport?

64
Airspace

• 1000 feet and 3 miles visibility

65
Class A

• What are the upper and lower limits of Class A
  Airspace?

66
Class A

• Fl 180 to FL 600

67
Class C

• What is the normal upper limit of Class C
  airspace?

68
Class C

• 4000 feet AGL

69
Class D

• What is the normal upper limit of Class D
  airspace?

70
Class D

• 2500 feet AGL

71
Class E

• On a sectional chart, how is class E airspace to
  the surface depicted?

72
Class E

• Broken Magenta line

73
Which is true regarding flight operations in
Class A airspace? A. Aircraft must be equipped
with approved distance measuring equipment
(DME). B. Must conduct operations under
instrument flight rules. C. Aircraft must be
equipped with an approved ATC transponder.
74
Which is true regarding flight operations in
Class A airspace? B. Must conduct operations
under instrument flight rules.
75
Which is true regarding flight operations in
Class A airspace? A. Aircraft must be equipped
with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).
76
B. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC
transponder and altitude reporting equipment. C.
May conduct operations under visual flight
rules.
77
Which is true regarding flight operations in
Class A airspace? B. Aircraft must be equipped
with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting
equipment.
78
Which is true regarding flight operations in
Class B airspace? A. The aircraft must be
equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude
reporting equipment.
79
B. The pilot in command must hold at least a
private pilot certificate with an instrument
rating. C. The pilot in command must hold at
least a student pilot certificate.
80
Which is true regarding flight operations in
Class B airspace? A. The aircraft must be
equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude
reporting equipment.
81
What transponder equipment is required for
airplane operations within Class B airspace? A
transponder A. with 4096 code or Mode S, and
Mode C capability.
82
B. is required for airplane operations when
visibility is less than 3 miles. C. with 4096
code capability is required except when operating
at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms of a
letter of agreement.
83
What transponder equipment is required for
airplane operations within Class B airspace? A
transponder A. with 4096 code or Mode S, and
Mode C capability.
84
What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized
in the airspace underlying Class B airspace? A.
200 knots. B. 156 knots. C. 230 knots.
85
What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized
in the airspace underlying Class B airspace? A.
200 knots.
86
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC,
the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at
or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the
primary airport within Class C or D airspace
is A. 230 knots. B. 200 knots. C. 180
knots.
87
Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC,
the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at
or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the
primary airport within Class C or D airspace
is B. 200 knots.
88
If the minimum safe speed for any particular
operation is greater than the maximum speed
prescribed in 14 CFR part 91, the A. aircraft
may be operated at that speed.
89
B. operator must have a Letter of Agreement
with ATC. C. operator must have a Memorandum of
Agreement (MOA) with the controlling agency.
90
If the minimum safe speed for any particular
operation is greater than the maximum speed
prescribed in 14 CFR part 91, the A. aircraft
may be operated at that speed.
91
Which is true regarding flight operations to or
from a satellite airport, without an operating
control tower, within the Class C airspace
area? A. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC
transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
92
B. Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish
communication with the ATC controlling facility.
C. Prior to landing, a pilot must establish
and maintain communication with an ATC facility.

93
Which is true regarding flight operations to or
from a satellite airport, without an operating
control tower, within the Class C airspace
area? A. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC
transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
94
Which is true regarding flight operations to or
from a satellite airport, without an operating
control tower, within the Class C airspace
area? A. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC
transponder.
95
B. Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish
communication with the ATC controlling facility.
C. Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot
must establish and maintain communication with
the ATC serving facility.
96
Which is true regarding flight operations to or
from a satellite airport, without an operating
control tower, within the Class C airspace
area? C. Prior to entering that airspace, a
pilot must establish and maintain communication
with the ATC serving facility
97
At some airports located in Class D airspace
where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs
and landings under special VFR are A.
authorized only if the ground visibility is
observed to be at least 3 SM.
98
B. not authorized. C. authorized by ATC if
the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.
99
At some airports located in Class D airspace
where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs
and landings under special VFR are C.
authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at
least 1 SM.
100
When operating an airplane for the purpose of
takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under
special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds
and what visibility are required? A. 500 feet
beneath clouds, and the ground visibility must be
at least 1 SM.
101
B. Remain clear of clouds, and the flight
visibility must be at least 1 NM. C. Remain
clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must
be at least 1 SM.
102
When operating an airplane for the purpose of
takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under
special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds
and what visibility are required? C. Remain
clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must
be at least 1 SM.
103
To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR)
within Class D airspace at night, which is
required? A. The pilot must hold an instrument
rating, and the airplane must be equipped for
instrument flight.
104
B. The Class D airspace must be specifically
designated as a night SVFR area. C. The pilot
must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane
need not be equipped for instrument flight, as
long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR
minimums.
105
To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR)
within Class D airspace at night, which is
required? A. The pilot must hold an instrument
rating, and the airplane must be equipped for
instrument flight.
106
What designated airspace associated with an
airport becomes inactive when the control tower
at that airport is not in operation? A. Class
D, which then becomes Class E. B. Class D,
which then becomes Class C. C. Class B.
107
What designated airspace associated with an
airport becomes inactive when the control tower
at that airport is not in operation? A. Class
D, which then becomes Class E.
108
When approaching to land at an airport with an
ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must
establish communications prior to A. 4 NM, up
to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
109
B. 30 SM, and be transponder equipped. C. 10
NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
110
When approaching to land at an airport with an
ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must
establish communications prior to A. 4 NM, up
to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
111
Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the
Federal Low Altitude airways extend from A.
1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000
feet MSL. B. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not
including, 14,500 feet MSL. C. 700 feet AGL up
to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.
112
Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the
Federal Low Altitude airways extend from A.
1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000
feet MSL.
113
To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in
locating your position, you must have an
operative VHF A. transmitter and receiver, and
an operative VOR receiver. B. transmitter and
receiver. C. transmitter and receiver, and an
operative ADF receiver.
114
To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in
locating your position, you must have an
operative VHF B. transmitter and receiver.
115
(Refer to figure 51.) The pilot generally calls
ground control after landing when the aircraft is
completely clear of the runway. This is when the
aircraft A. passes the red symbol shown at the
top of the figure.
116
B. is past the solid-line side of the middle
symbol. C. is on the dashed-line side of the
middle symbol.
117
(Refer to figure 51.) The pilot generally calls
ground control after landing when the aircraft is
completely clear of the runway. This is when the
aircraft B. is past the solid-line side of the
middle symbol.
118
(Refer to figure 51.) The red symbol at the top
would most likely be found A. at an
intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a
taxiway. B. near the approach end of ILS
runways. C. upon exiting all runways prior to
calling ground control.
119
(Refer to figure 51.) The red symbol at the top
would most likely be found A. at an
intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a
taxiway.
120
(Refer to figure 51.) While clearing an active
runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS
critical area when you pass which symbol? A.
Top red. B. Bottom yellow. C. Middle yellow.
121
(Refer to figure 51.) While clearing an active
runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS
critical area when you pass which symbol? B.
Bottom yellow.
122
(Refer to figure 51.) Which symbol does not
directly address runway incursion with other
aircraft? A. Top red. B. Bottom yellow. C.
Middle yellow.
123
(Refer to figure 51.) Which symbol does not
directly address runway incursion with other
aircraft? A. Top red.
124
How can you determine if another aircraft is on
a collision course with your aircraft? A. The
other aircraft will always appear to get larger
and closer at a rapid rate.
125
B. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the
same point in space. C. There will be no
apparent relative motion between your aircraft
and the other aircraft.
126
How can you determine if another aircraft is on
a collision course with your aircraft? C. There
will be no apparent relative motion between your
aircraft and the other aircraft.
127
What is the general direction of movement of the
other aircraft if during a night flight you
observe a steady white light and a rotating red
light ahead and at your altitude? The other
aircraft is A. approaching you head-on. B.
headed away from you. C. crossing to your left.
128
What is the general direction of movement of the
other aircraft if during a night flight you
observe a steady white light and a rotating red
light ahead and at your altitude? The other
aircraft is B. headed away from you.
129
When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being
used for navigation on VFR flights, it is
important to A. exercise sustained vigilance to
avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR
from other directions.
130
B. make 90 left and right turns to scan for
other traffic. C. pass the VOR on the right
side of the radial to allow room for aircraft
flying in the opposite direction on the same
radial.
131
When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being
used for navigation on VFR flights, it is
important to A. exercise sustained vigilance to
avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR
from other directions.
132
Choose the correct statement regarding wake
turbulence. A. The greatest vortex strength is
produced when the generating airplane is heavy,
clean, and fast.
133
B. The primary hazard is loss of control
because of induced roll. C. Vortex generation
begins with the initiation of the takeoff roll.
134
Choose the correct statement regarding wake
turbulence. B. The primary hazard is loss of
control because of induced roll.
135
During a takeoff made behind a departing large
jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard
of wingtip vortices by A. maintaining extra
speed on takeoff and climbout.
136
B. being airborne prior to reaching the jet's
flightpath until able to turn clear of its
wake. C. extending the takeoff roll and not
rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation
point.
137
During a takeoff made behind a departing large
jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard
of wingtip vortices by B. being airborne prior
to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to
turn clear of its wake.
138
Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake
turbulence if a large jet crosses your course
from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and
at your altitude? A. Make sure you are slightly
above the path of the jet.
139
B. Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain
altitude and course. C. Make sure you are
slightly below the path of the jet and
perpendicular to the course.
140
Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake
turbulence if a large jet crosses your course
from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and
at your altitude? A. Make sure you are slightly
above the path of the jet.
141
To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large
jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your
takeoff, at which point on the runway should you
plan to become airborne? A. At the point where
the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.
142
B. Approximately 500 feet prior to the point
where the jet touched down. C. Past the point
where the jet touched down.
143
To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large
jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your
takeoff, at which point on the runway should you
plan to become airborne? C. Past the point
where the jet touched down.
144
With respect to vortex circulation, which is
true? A. Helicopters generate downwash
turbulence, not vortex circulation.
145
B. Vortex circulation generated by helicopters
in forward flight trail behind in a manner
similar to wingtip vortices generated by
airplanes. C. The vortex strength is greatest
when the generating aircraft is flying fast.
146
With respect to vortex circulation, which is
true? B. Vortex circulation generated by
helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a
manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by
airplanes.
147
Which is true with respect to vortex
circulation? A. When vortex circulation sinks
into ground effect, it tends to dissipate rapidly
and offer little danger.
148
B. The vortex strength is greatest when the
generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow. C.
Helicopters generate downwash turbulence only,
not vortex circulation.
149
Which is true with respect to vortex
circulation? B. The vortex strength is greatest
when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and
slow.