NAV 0603 - 1

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NAV 0603 - 1
2

• What is the latitude of the Tropic of Cancer?
• A. 66?34S
• B. 23?26N
• C. 23?26S
• D. 0?

3

• 2. Which of the planet in the Solar System has
  almost the same size as the Earth?
• A. Venus
• B. Neptune
• C. Pluto
• D. Mars

4

• 3. Retrograde motion is possible only for
  ________.
• A. Mars
• B. Earth
• C. Venus
• D. Mercury

5

• 4. The dimmest stars that could be reasonably
  used for navigational purpose are of what
  magnitude?
• A. first
• B. third
• C. sixth
• D. tenth

6

• 5. The motion of the planets in the solar system
  is governed by _______.
• A. Keplers Law
• B. Newtons Law
• C. Archimedes Principle
• D. Sumners Theory

7

• 6. The Tropic of Capricorn marks the southern
  limit of ________.
• A. South Frigid Zone
• B. North Frigid Zone
• C. Torrid Zone
• D. North Temperate Zone

8

• 7. The superior planet are brightest and closest
  to the earth at ________.
• A. opposition
• B. inferior conjunction
• C. east quadrature
• D. west quadrature

9

• 8. What is the phase of the moon when it rises
  about noon and sets about midnight?
• A. New moon
• B. Full moon
• C. First quarter
• D. Last quarter

10

• 9. What is the position of a suspended magnet
  over the magnetic pole?
• A. slanting
• B. horizontal
• C vertical
• D. diagonal

11

• 10. The orbit of each planet is an ellipse with
  the sun at one of its foci is a law that is
  associated with _________.
• A. Kepler
• B. Newton
• C. Archimedes
• D. Aristotle

12

• 11. The period of revolution of planet Venus is
  225 days. The mean distance of the Sun from the
  Earth is 92.9 million miles. Find the mean
  distance of Venus from the Sun.
• A. 67,288,700 miles
• B. 70,000,200 miles
• C. 80,000,200 miles
• D. 69,288,700 miles

13

• 12. The magnitude of three stars is indicated.
  Which star is the brightest?
• A. Canopus 0.9
• B. Vega 0.1
• C. Antares 1.2
• D. Cannot be determined

14

• 13. What will become of an ellipse if the
  distance between the foci is equal to the length
  of the major axis?
• A. a circle
• B. a straight line
• C. a curve line
• D. a semi-circle

15

• 14. A first magnitude star is _______.
• A. 2.5 minutes as bright as a second magnitude
  star
• B. 3 times as bright as a second magnitude star
• C. 5 times as bright as a second magnitude star
• D. 10 times as bright as a second magnitude star

16

• 15. The expression first magnitude is usually
  used to refer only to bodies of magnitude
  ________.
• A. 1.5 and greater
• B. 1.25 and greater
• C. 1.0 and greater
• D. 0.5 and greater

17

• 16. The magnitude of three stars is indicated.
  Which star is the brightest?
• A. Antares 1.2
• B. Altair 0.9
• C. Vega 0.1
• D. Cannot be determined magnitude indicates size
  not brightness

18

• 17. The mean distance of the Earth from the Sun
  is 92,960,000 miles. What is the Earths distance
  from the Sun in Astronomical Unit?
• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 0.5
• D. 2.1

19

• 18. What are the relative positions of the Sun,
  the Earth, and a planet when the planet is at
  opposition?
• A. Sun is between the Earth and the Planet
• B. Earth is between the Sun and the Planet
• C. Planet is between the earth and the Sun
• D. The Planet, the Sun and the Earth are not in
  line

20

• 19. The sun is closer to the earth in what month?
• A. October
• B. July
• C. April
• D. January

21

• 20. When the sun is between the Earth and Planet
  Venus, Venus is said to be at _________.
• A. superior conjunction
• B. inferior conjunction
• C. east quadranture
• D. west quadranture

22

• 21. When a planet Venus is between the Earth and
  the Sun, Venus is said to be at _________.
• A. greatest elongation west
• B. superior conjunction
• C. inferior conjunction
• D. greatest elongation east

23

• 22. What are the relative positions of the Sun,
  and a planet when the planet is at inferior
  conjunction?
• A. The Planet is between the Earth and the Sun
• B. The Sun is between the Earth and the Planet
• C. The Earth is between the Planet and the Sun
• D. The Planet is between the Earth and Mercury

24

• 23. Inferior conjunction is possible for
  _________.
• A. Mars
• B. Venus
• C. Saturn
• D. Jupiter

25

• 24. As the inferior planet moves along its orbit
  from superior conjunction to inferior conjunction
  its elongation __________.
• A. increase
• B. decrease
• C. does not change
• D. is maximum

26

• 25. What is the latitude of the Antarctic Circle?
• A. 43?06N
• B. 66?33S
• C. 43?06S
• D. 66?33N

27

• 26. Why is planet Venus not visible at midnight
  in any latitude? Because _________.
• A. its greatest elongation is only 46?
• B. it is superior planet
• C. its radius vector is longer than that of the
  Earth
• D. it is a morning star

28

• 27. Planetary aberration is due, in part, to
  _______.
• A. rotation of the earth on her axis
• B. refraction of light as it enters the Earths
  atmosphere
• C. required for its light to reach the Earth
• D. a false horizon

29

• 28. The Tropic of Cancer marks the northern limit
  of _______.
• A. Torrid Zone
• B. North Frigid Zone
• C. South Frigid Zone
• D. North Temperature Zone

30

• 29. What is the latitude of the Arctic Circle?
• A. 66?33S
• B. 43?06N
• C. 43?06S
• D. 66?33N

31

• 30. How far (in angular distance) is the Arctic
  Circle from the North Pole?
• A. 23?26
• B. 66?34
• C. 46?52
• D. 90?

32

• 31. How far (in angular distance) is the
  Antarctic Circle from the South Pole?
• A. 23?26
• B. 66?34
• C. 46?52
• D. 90?

33

• 32. What is the difference of latitude between
  the Antarctic Circle and the Tropic of Capricorn?
• A. 66?34
• B. 43?08
• C. 23?26
• D. 46?52

34

• 33. Between the parallel of about 23?26 N and
  about 23?26 S the sun is directly overheard at
  some time during the year. If you are situated
  between these two parallels how many times in a
  year will the sun pass your zenith?
• A. twice
• B. once
• C. never
• D. four times

35

• 34. What is the latitude of the Tropic of
  Capricorn?
• A. 46?06N
• B. 23?26N
• C. 23?26S
• D. 46?06S

36

• 35. Places situated in Lat 30?N are within the
  ________.
• A. North Temperature Zone
• B. Torrid Zone
• C. North Frigid Zone
• D. limits of the circles

37

• 36. The hour circle that passes through the First
  point of Aries is known as the ________.
• A. solsticial colure
• B. equinoctial colure
• C. vernal equinoctial circle
• D. circle of equal declination

38

• 37. The maximum elongation of Planet Venus
  (expressed in time units) is about ________.
• A. 3 hours
• B. 2 hours
• C. 6 hours
• D. 5 hours

39

• 38. In what planetary configuration should Venus
  be situated if it is an evening star?
• A. between greatest elongest east and inferior
  conjunction
• B. between greatest elongest west and inferior
  conjunction
• C. a greatest elongation west
• D. at superior conjunction

40

• 39. What is the difference of latitude between
  the Arctic Circle and the Tropic of Cancer?
• A. 66?34
• B. 43?08
• C. 23?26
• D. 46?52

41

• 40. Which of the sensitive element provides high
  shock tolerance and greatly reduces the effect of
  acceleration?
• A. Fluid suspension
• B. Gyro suspension
• C. Neutral buoyancy
• D. None of these

42

• 41. What is the angular distance of the sun from
  the zenith of the observe at noon of Dec 21 or 23
  if the observer is navigating along the Tropic of
  Capricorn?
• A. 0?
• B. 23?27
• C. 66?33
• D. 43?06

43

• 42. Which of the planet in the Solar System has
  almost the same size as the Earth?
• A. Neptune
• B. Venus
• C. Pluto
• D. Mars

44

• 43. On which direction does a magnetic line of
  forces flow in the vicinity of magnetic equator?
• A. parallel to the surface
• B. upward towards the pole
• C. downward towards the pole
• D. vertically upward

45

• 44. What will become of an ellipse if the
  distance between the foci is zero?
• A. a straight line
• B. circle
• C. a curve line
• D. a semi-circle

46

• 45. In what planetary configuration should Venus
  be situated if it is a morning star?
• A. between inferior conjunction and greatest
  elongation east
• B. at opposition
• C. between inferior conjunction and greatest
  elongation west
• D. at superior conjunction

47

• 46. When Venus disappears in the sky it can be
  presumed to be at or near ________.
• A. inferior or superior conjunction
• B. greatest eastern elongation
• C. greatest western elongation
• D. west quadrature

48

• 47. Venus attains maximum brilliance of about
  five weeks before and after _________.
• A. greatest elongation east
• B. superior conjunction
• C. inferior conjunction
• D. greatest elongation west

49

• 48. Which of the following is the basic property
  of the gyro compass which is similar to the
  gyroscopic inertia?
• A. Rigidity in space
• B. Torque
• C. Balistic
• D. Precession

50

• 49. Which deviation change sign approximately
  each 90 degrees change of heading caused by
  induced magnetism in horizontal soft iron?
• A. Quadrantal deviation
• B. Semi-circular deviation
• C. Constant deviation
• D. Residual deviation

51

• 50. What is the angular distance of the sun from
  the zenith of the observer at noon of June 21 or
  23 if the observer is navigating along the Tropic
  of Cancer?
• A. 0?
• B. 23?27
• C. 43?06
• D. 66?33

52

• 51. The term velocity of escape means
  _________.
• A. the speed at which the molecules of the gas
  making up the atmosphere should attain in order
  to overcome the force of gravity
• B. the speed of the planet along its orbit
• C. the speed in space of the sun together with
  all the planets revolving around in
• D. the take-off speed of Rockets

53

• 52. The term gegenschein is associated with
  ________.
• A. planets
• B. meteors
• C. moon
• D. stars

54

• 53. Zodiacal light is related to ________.
• A. meteors
• B. stars
• C. sun
• D. moon

55

• 54. Milky Way is term associated with ________.
• A. Suns way
• B. Motion of a star through space
• C. Galaxy
• D. The path of the earth as it travels around
  the sun

56

• 55. The celestial sphere as seen by an observer
  at the equator is called the ______.
• A. right sphere
• B. parallel sphere
• C. oblique sphere
• D. quadrantal sphere

57

• 56. The celestial sphere as seen by an observer
  at the geographical poles is called the
  _________.
• A. right sphere
• B. parallel sphere
• C. oblique sphere
• D. quadrantal sphere

58

• 57. The point at which the plane of the moons
  orbit intersects the ecliptic is called the
  _______.
• A. nodes
• B. Solar point
• C. Solstice
• D. Saros

59

• 58. The inclination of the plane of the moons
  orbit with the plane of the ecliptic is about
  _______.
• A. 5?
• B. 23?
• C. 15?
• D. 26?

60

• 59. If the orbit of the moon coincided with the
  plane of ecliptic how many solar eclipse would
  occur in one month?
• A. None
• B. 2
• C. 1
• D. 3

61

• 60. The moon is at last quarter. What kind of
  eclipse is possible to occur?
• A. no eclipse
• B. lunar eclipse
• C. solar eclipse
• D. annular eclipse

62

• 61. Annular eclipse occurs because ________.
• A. the moons shadow cannot reach the earth
• B. the moons shadow is turned away from the
  earth
• C. the moon is at first quarter
• D. the moon is at perigee

63

• 62. Annular eclipse occurs when the ______.
• A. the moon is 6 hours ahead of the sun
• B. the earth is between the moon and the sun
• C. the sun is west of the moon
• D. the moon is between the earth and the sun

64

• 63. Planetary aberration is due in part, to
  ________.
• A. the bodys orbital motion during the time
  required for its light to reach the earth
• B. refraction of light as it enters the Earths
  atmosphere
• C. rotation of the Earth on its axis
• D. a false horizon

65

• 64. Diurnal aberration is due to _________.
• A. false a horizon
• B. motion of the Earth in its orbit
• C. the bodys orbital motion during the time
  required for its light to reach the earth
• D. rotation of the Earth on its axis

66

• 65. Elongation becomes zero at _________.
• A. Inferior conjunction
• B. Opposition
• C. west quadranture
• D. east quadranture

67

• 66. In the equinoctial system of celestial
  coordinates, what is not similar to the
  longitude of the Earth?
• A. SHA
• B. t
• C. LHA
• D. Zn

68

• 67. The prime vertical is the great circle on the
  celestial sphere that passes through the _______.
• A. celestial poles and the zenith
• B. zenith, nadir and the east point of the
  horizon
• C. celestial poles and the celestial body
• D. zenith, nadir and the celestial body

69

• 68. What do you call the low disturbances which
  travel along the inert-tropical convergence
  zone?
• A. Permanent waves
• B. Tidal waves
• C. Tropical disturbances
• D. Tropical waves

70

• 69. What is the energy created by the wind?
• A. Kinetic
• B. Thermal
• C. Potential
• D. Mechanical

71

• 70. What is the effect of super refraction?
• A. Bend radar rays downward and increase radar
  range
• B. Bend radar rays upward and decrease radar
  range
• C. Bend radar rays upward and increase radar
  range
• D. Bend radar rays downward and decrease radar
  range

72

• 71. Which of the following describes the
  forecast for the next 24 hours of wind, weather,
  and visibility for each coastal area and the
  latest report from coastal stations?
• A. coastal weather report
• B. coastal warnings
• C. coastal forecast
• D. general synopsis

73

• 72. When sending the radio pratique message, this
  could be done by using?
• A. signal code
• B. plain language
• C. signal and coded signal
• D. all of these

74

• 73. What is the term used to identify the length
  of the arc of a meridian between the equator and
  a given parallel on a mercator chart?
• A. difference of longitude
• B. meridional part
• C. difference of latitude
• D. departure

75

• 74. What do you call the gyro error used the
  rotation of the earth the affects the heading
  system of the compass?
• A. gyroscopic error
• B. apparent drift
• C. tilting error
• D. gravity error

76

• 75. Among the following, which station determines
  accurately the satellite present and future orbit
  as it passes within radio line-of-sight?
• A. injection station
• B. central computing station
• C. tracking station
• D. orbit control station

77

• 76. What does P/C stands in GPS Satellite
  operation stand?
• A. personal code
• B. Precise code
• C. private code
• D. Periodic code

78

• 77. This is a layer in the atmosphere wherein the
  freed electrons and ions apparently for normal
  atoms and molecules of the rate field as the
  stress of the ultra violet ray diminishes
• A. E layer
• B. F2 layer
• C. F1 layer
• D. D layer

79

• 78. What is the term used to identify the
  vertical displacement of high or low tide from a
  same mean level?
• A. flood
• B. range
• C. amplitude
• D. magnitude

80

• 79. A type of precipitation consisting of
  transparent or translucent pellets of ice, 5
  millimeters or less in diameter
• A. Ice pellets
• B. Ice rind
• C. Ice storm
• D. Ice fog

81

• 80. The condition when the azimuth limit switch
  activates is called
• A. Lost satellite tracking
• B. On-line
• C. Azimuth drive
• D. Open drive

82

• 81. In an old form of compass, how would you
  apply your error?
• A. 4th and 2nd quadrant have the same
  application
• B. 1st and 3rd quadrant have opposite
  application
• C. 2nd and 1st quadrant have the same
  application
• D. 3rd and 4th quadrant have the same application

83

• 82. What is developed by the coast guard to
  enhance the visibility or range light is made of
  15 foot long lighted tubes?
• A. light pipes
• B. lamp changer
• C. Directional light
• D. any of these

84

• 83. An arc formed 46 deg below the sun, with
  red on the upperside is called
• A. Parhelion arc
• B. Tangent arc
• C. Sun pillar
• D. Circumhorizontal arc

85

• 84. The parallax angle will vary the most with
  the time of year for ______.
• A . Venus
• B. Jupiter
• C. Saturn
• D. Polaris

86

• 85. Ocean well originating from a typhoon can
  move ahead of it at speed near _________.
• A. 10 knots
• B. 20 knots
• C. 30 knots
• D. 50 knots

87

• 86. When the moons declination is maximum
  north, which of the following will occur?
• A. Mixed tide
• B. Higher high tide and lower low tides
• C. Tropic tides
• D. Equatorial tides

88

• 87. The depth of water is indicated on the chart
  as 23 meters. This is equivalent to _______.
• A. 11.5 fathoms
• B. 12.6 fathoms
• C. 69.0 feet
• D. 78.6 feet

89

• 88. The velocity of the rotary tidal current
  will increase when the moon is _________.
• A. New
• B. Full
• C. At perigee
• D. Any of these

90

• 89. One of the factors which affect the
  circulation of ocean current is ________.
• A. Humidity
• B. Varying densities of water
• C. Vessels traffic
• D. The met stream

91

• 90. Which method of position-finding requires no
  special receiving equipment?
• A. Consol
• B. Omega
• C. Loran C
• D. Decca

92

• 91. Mariners are first warned of serious defects
  or important changes to aids to navigation by
  means of __________.
• A. Marine broadcast Notices to Mariners
• B. Weekly Notices to Mariners
• C. Corrected edition of charts
• D. Light List

93

• 92. Referring to the Navigational equipment,
  which of the following statement is correct as
  one of the basic principle to be observed in
  keeping a navigational watch required by STCW/78
  Regulation II/I?
• The officer of the watch shall make the most
  effective use of all navigational equipment at
  his disposal.
• When using radar, the officer of the watch shall
  bear in mind the necessity to comply at all times
  with the provisions on the use of radar contained
  in the applicable regulations for preventing
  collision at sea.
• A. I only
• B. II only
• C. Both I and II
• D. Neither I nor II

94

• 93. In regions of heavy traffic, which of the
  following statements concerning radar is CORRECT?
• I. The need to use radar in good visibility
  would apply to all vessels.
• II. It apply especially to ships fitted with
  more sophisticated radar system which incorporate
  the ability to indicate whether there is a risk
  of collision wit h several targets and to
  determine the effectiveness of proposed
  maneouvers.
• A. Both I and II
• B. I only
• C. II only
• D. Neither I nor II

95

• 94. You are the officer in charge of the
  navigational watch and the ship is on automatic
  steering, and it gives an alarm signal which of
  the following will be the cause?
• I. Off .course alarm
• II. Power failure in the system
• III. Overload
• IV. Low oil level
• A. I only
• B. II and III only
• C. I and II only
• D. I, II, III and IV

96

• 95. Which of the following are duties that an
  officer in charge of the watch shall perform on a
  ship while at anchor?
• I. Make sure that the main engines and other
  machinery are in state of readiness in accordance
  with instructions of the master
• II. Make sure that the ship exhibits the
  appropriated lights, and shapes and the
  appropriate sound signals made in accordance with
  all the applicable regulations
• III. Take measures to protect the environment
  from pollution by the ship and comply with
  applicable anti-pollution regulations.
• A. I and II only
• B. II and III only
• C. I and III only
• D. I, II and III

97

• 96. Which of the following shall an officer of
  the watch attend to when the ship is safely
  moored or at anchor in port?
• I. Observe all regulations concerning safety and
  fire protection
• II. Pay attention to the water level in bilges
  and tanks
• III. Pay particular attention to the weather and
  the state of sea
• A. II and III only
• B. I and III only
• C. I and II only
• D. I, II, III

98

• 97. In regions of heavy traffic, which of the
  following statements concerning radar is
• CORRECT?
• I. Radar can be used to assess the general
  traffic situation in all conditions of visibility
  
• II. The importance of radar for the purpose of
  collision avoidance has now been recognized in
  the 1972 Collision Regulation in Rules 6, 7, 8
  and 19
• A. Both I and II
• B. I only
• C. II only
• D. Neither I nor II

99

• 98. Officers of the navigational watch shall be
  familiar with the use of all electronic aids
  and should bear in mind that the ________ is a
  valuable navigational aid as required by STCW
  Code Section A-VIII/2 par. (36)
• A. Radar
• B. ARPA
• C. Echo sounder
• D. GMDSS

100

• 99. In restricted visibility, a vessel which
  detects by radar alone the presence of another
  vessel shall determine if a close quarters
  situation is developing or risk of collision
  exits. If so, she shall
• A. Sound the danger signal B. When taking
  action, make only course changes
• C. Avoid altering course toward a vessel abaft
  the beam
• D. All of these

101

• 100. In a vessel of less than 20 meters in
  length, shapes of lesser dimension but
  commensurate with the size of the vessel maybe
  used and the distance may be correspondingly_____
  .
• A. Reduced
• B. Increased
• C. Cast to case basis
• D. None of these