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Title: Evolution Review


1
Evolution Review
  • AP Biology

2
  • During a study session about evolution, one of
    your fellow students remarks, "The giraffe
    stretched its neck while reaching for higher
    leaves its offspring inherited longer necks as a
    result." Which statement is most likely to be
    helpful in correcting this student's
    misconception?
  • a. Characteristics acquired during an organism's
    life are generally not passed on through genes.
  • b. Spontaneous mutations can result in the
    appearance of new traits.
  • c. Only favorable adaptations have survival
    value.
  • d. Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual
    disappearance.
  • e. Overproduction of offspring leads to a
    struggle for survival.

3
  • In a hypothetical environment, fishes called
    pike-cichlids are visual predators of
    algae-eating fish (i.e., they locate their prey
    by sight). If a population of algae-eaters
    experiences predation pressure from
    pike-cichlids, which of the following should
    least likely be observed in the algae-eater
    population over the course of many generations?
  • a. Selection for drab coloration of the
    algae-eaters
  • b. Selection for nocturnal algae-eaters (active
    only at night)
  • c. Selection for larger female algae-eaters,
    bearing broods composed of more, and larger,
    young
  • d. Selection for algae-eaters that become
    sexually mature at smaller overall body sizes
  • e. Selection for algae-eaters that are faster
    swimmers

4
  • Of the following anatomical structures, which is
    homologous to the wing of a bird?
  • a. Dorsal fin of a shark
  • b. Hindlimb of a kangaroo
  • c. Wing of a butterfly
  • d. Tail fin of a flying fish
  • e. Flipper of a cetacean

5
  • Which of the following statements most detracts
    from the claim that the human appendix is a
    completely vestigial organ?
  • a. The appendix can be surgically removed with no
    immediate ill effects.
  • b. The appendix might have been larger in fossil
    hominids.
  • c. The appendix has a substantial amount of
    defensive lymphatic tissue.
  • d. Individuals with a larger-than-average
    appendix leave fewer offspring than those with a
    below-average-sized appendix.
  • e. In a million years, the human species might
    completely lack an appendix

6
  • The upper forelimbs of humans and bats have
    fairly similar skeletal structures, whereas the
    corresponding bones in whales have very different
    shapes and proportions. However, genetic data
    suggest that all three kinds of organisms
    diverged from a common ancestor at about the same
    time. Which of the following is the most likely
    explanation for these data?
  • a. Humans and bats evolved by natural selection,
    and whales evolved by Lamarckian mechanisms.
  • b. Forelimb evolution was adaptive in people and
    bats, but not in whales.
  • c. Natural selection in an aquatic environment
    resulted in significant changes to whale forelimb
    anatomy.
  • d. Genes mutate faster in whales than in humans
    or bats.
  • e. Whales are not properly classified as mammals.

7
  • DNA sequences in many human genes are very
    similar to the sequences of corresponding genes
    in chimpanzees. The most likely explanation for
    this result is that
  • a. humans and chimpanzees share a relatively
    recent common ancestor.
  • b. humans evolved from chimpanzees.
  • c. chimpanzees evolved from humans.
  • d. convergent evolution led to the DNA
    similarities.
  • e. humans and chimpanzees are not closely
    related.

8
  • Which of these variables is likely to undergo the
    largest change in value as the result of a
    mutation that introduces a brand-new allele into
    a population's gene pool at a locus that had
    formerly been fixed?
  • a. Average heterozygosity
  • b. Nucleotide variability
  • c. Geographic variability
  • d. Average number of loci

9
  • Each of the following has a better chance of
    influencing gene frequencies in small populations
    than in large populations, but which one most
    consistently requires a small population as a
    precondition for its occurrence?
  • a. Mutation
  • b. Non-random mating
  • c. Genetic drift
  • d. Natural selection
  • e. Gene flow

10
  • Which is a true statement concerning genetic
    variation?
  • a. It is created by the direct action of natural
    selection.
  • b. It arises in response to changes in the
    environment.
  • c. It must be present in a population before
    natural selection can act upon the population.
  • d. It tends to be reduced by the processes
    involved when diploid organisms produce gametes.
  • e. A population that has a higher average
    heterozygosity has less genetic variation than
    one with a larger average heterozygosity.

11
  • In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles,
    A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency
    of allele a is 0.1. What is the percentage of the
    population that is heterozygous for this allele?
  • a. 90
  • b. 81
  • c. 49
  • d. 18
  • e. 10

12
  • In the year 2500, five male space colonists and
    five female space colonists (all unrelated to
    each other) settle on an uninhabited Earthlike
    planet in the Andromeda galaxy. The colonists and
    their offspring randomly mate for generations.
    All ten of the original colonists had free
    earlobes, and two were heterozygous for that
    trait. The allele for free earlobes is dominant
    to the allele for attached earlobes.
  • If one assumes that Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
    applies to the population of colonists on this
    planet, about how many people will have attached
    earlobes when the planet's population reaches
    10,000?
  • a. 100 b. 400 c. 800 d. 1,000 e. 10,000

13
  • You are studying three populations of birds.
    Population A has ten birds, of which one is brown
    (a recessive trait) and nine are red. Population
    B has 100 birds, of which ten are brown.
    Population C has 30 birds, and three of them are
    brown.
  • In which population would it be least likely that
    an accident would significantly alter the
    frequency of the brown allele?
  • a. Population A.
  • b. Population B.
  • c. Population C.
  • d. They are all the same.

14
  • Over time, the movement of people on Earth has
    steadily increased. This has altered the course
    of human evolution by increasing
  • a. non-random mating.
  • b. geographic isolation.
  • c. genetic drift.
  • d. mutations.
  • e. gene flow.

15
  • Arrange the following from most general (i.e.,
    most inclusive) to most specific (i.e., least
    inclusive)
  • 1. Natural selection
  • 2. Microevolution
  • 3. Intrasexual selection
  • 4. Evolution
  • 5. Sexual selection
  • a. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
  • b. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
  • c. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
  • d. 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
  • e. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3

16
  • Adult male humans generally have deeper voices
    than do adult female humans, as the direct result
    of higher levels of testosterone causing growth
    of the larynx.
  • If the fossil records of apes and humans alike
    show a trend toward decreasing larynx size in
    adult females, and increasing larynx size in
    adult males, then
  • a. sexual dimorphism was developing over time in
    these species.
  • b. intrasexual selection seems to have occurred.
  • c. the "good genes" hypothesis was refuted by
    these data.
  • d. stabilizing selection was occurring in these
    species concerning larynx size.
  • e. selection was acting more directly upon
    genotype than upon phenotype.

17
  • Heterozygote advantage should be most closely
    linked to which of the following?
  • a. sexual selection
  • b. stabilizing selection
  • c. random selection
  • d. directional selection
  • e. disruptive selection

18
  • In a very large population, a quantitative trait
    has the following distribution pattern
  • What is true of the trait whose frequency
    distribution in a large population appears below?
    It has probably undergone
  • a. directional selection.
  • b. stabilizing selection.
  • c. disruptive selection.
  • d. sexual selection.
  • e. random selection.

19
  • A proficient engineer can easily design skeletal
    structures that are more functional than those
    currently found in the forelimbs of such diverse
    mammals as horses, whales, and bats. That the
    actual forelimbs of these mammals do not seem to
    be optimally arranged is because
  • a. natural selection has not had sufficient time
    to create the optimal design in each case, but
    will do so given enough time.
  • b. natural selection operates in ways that are
    beyond the capability of the human mind to
    comprehend.
  • c. in many cases, phenotype is not merely
    determined by genotype, but by the environment as
    well.
  • d. though we may not consider the fit between the
    current skeletal arrangements and their functions
    excellent, we should not doubt that natural
    selection ultimately produces the best design.
  • e. natural selection is generally limited to
    modifying structures that were present in
    previous generations and in previous species.

20
  • Several closely related frog species of the genus
    Rana are found in the forests of the southeastern
    United States. The species boundaries are
    maintained by reproductive barriers. In each
    case, match the various descriptions of frogs
    below with the appropriate reproductive barrier
    listed.
  • Males of one species sing only when its predators
    are absent males of another species sing only
    when its predators are present.
  • a. behavioral
  • b. gametic
  • c. habitat
  • d. temporal
  • e. mechanical

21
  • Several closely related frog species of the genus
    Rana are found in the forests of the southeastern
    United States. The species boundaries are
    maintained by reproductive barriers. In each
    case, match the various descriptions of frogs
    below with the appropriate reproductive barrier
    listed.
  • One species mates at the season when daylight is
    increasing from 13 hours to 13 hours, 15 minutes
    another species mates at the season when daylight
    is increasing from 14 hours to 14 hours, 15
    minutes.
  • a. behavioral
  • b. gametic
  • c. habitat
  • d. temporal
  • e. mechanical

22
  • A hybrid zone is properly defined as
  • a. an area where two closely related species'
    ranges overlap.
  • b. an area where mating occurs between members of
    two closely related species, producing viable
    offspring.
  • c. a zone that features a gradual change in
    species composition where two neighboring
    ecosystems border each other.
  • d. a zone that includes the intermediate portion
    of a cline.
  • e. an area where members of two closely related
    species intermingle, but experience no gene flow.

23
  • According to the concept of punctuated
    equilibrium, the "sudden" appearance of a new
    species in the fossil record means that
  • a. the species is now extinct.
  • b. speciation occurred instantaneously.
  • c. speciation occurred in one generation.
  • d. speciation occurred rapidly in geologic time.
  • e. the species will consequently have a
    relatively short existence, compared with other
    species.

24
  • Which of these five species is the
  • extant (i.e., not extinct) species that
  • is most closely related to species
  • X, and why is this so?
  • a. V shared a common ancestor with X most
    recently
  • b. W shared a common ancestor with X most
    recently
  • c. Y arose in the same fashion (i.e., at the
    same tempo) as X
  • d. Z shared a common ancestor with X most
    recently, and arose in the same fashion as X

25
  • In what way were conditions on the early Earth of
    more than 3 billion years ago different from
    those on today's Earth?
  • a. Only early Earth had water vapor in its
    atmosphere.
  • b. Only early Earth was intensely bombarded by
    large space debris.
  • c. Only early Earth had an oxidizing atmosphere.
  • d. Less ultraviolet radiation penetrated Earth's
    early atmosphere.
  • e. Earth's early atmosphere had significant
    quantities of ozone.

26
  • Which is a defining characteristic that all
    protobionts had in common?
  • a. the ability to synthesize enzymes
  • b. a surrounding membrane or membrane-like
    structure
  • c. RNA genes
  • d. a nucleus
  • e. the ability to replicate RNA

27
  • What probably accounts for the switch to
    DNA-based genetic systems during the evolution of
    life on Earth?
  • a. DNA is chemically more stable and replicates
    with fewer errors (mutations) than RNA.
  • b. Only DNA can replicate during cell division.
  • c. RNA is too involved with translation of
    proteins and cannot provide multiple functions.
  • d. DNA forms the rod-shaped chromosomes necessary
    for cell division.
  • e. Replication of RNA occurs too slowly.

28
  • If the half-life of carbon-14 is about 5,730
    years, then a fossil that has one-sixteenth the
    normal proportion of carbon-14 to carbon-12
    should be about how many years old?
  • a. 1,400 b. 2,800 c. 11,200 d. 16,800
    e. 22,400

29
  • What is thought to be the correct sequence of
    these events, from earliest to most recent, in
    the evolution of life on Earth?
  • 1. origin of mitochondria
  • 2. origin of multicellular eukaryotes
  • 3. origin of chloroplasts
  • 4. origin of cyanobacteria
  • 5. origin of fungal-plant symbioses
  • a. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
  • b. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
  • c. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
  • d. 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
  • e. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5

30
  • Which of these observations fails to support the
    endosymbiotic theory for the origin of eukaryotic
    cells?
  • a. the existence of structural and molecular
    differences between the plasma membranes of
    prokaryotes and the internal membranes of
    mitochondria and chloroplasts
  • b. the existence of size differences between the
    cytosolic ribosomes of eukaryotes and the
    ribosomes within mitochondria and chloroplasts
  • c. the existence of size differences between some
    prokaryotic cells and mitochondria
  • d. the existence of rRNA sequence differences
    between the cytosolic ribosomes of eukaryotes and
    the ribosomes within mitochondria and
    chloroplasts

31
  • A hypothetical mutation in a squirrel population
    produces organisms with eight legs rather than
    four. Further, these mutant squirrels survive,
    successfully invade new habitats, and eventually
    give rise to a new species. The initial event,
    giving rise to extra legs, would be a good
    example of
  • a. punctuated equilibrium.
  • b. species selection.
  • c. habitat selection.
  • d. changes in homeotic genes.
  • e. allometry.

32
  • The existence of evolutionary trends, such as
    increasing body sizes among horse species, is
    evidence that
  • a. a larger volume-to-surface area ratio is
    beneficial to all mammals.
  • b. an unseen guiding force is at work.
  • c. evolution always tends toward increased
    complexity or increased size.
  • d. in particular environments, similar
    adaptations can be beneficial in more than one
    species.
  • e. evolution generally progresses toward some
    predetermined goal.

33
  • Fossil evidence indicates that several kinds of
    flightless dinosaurs possessed feathers. If some
    of these feather-bearing dinosaurs incubated
    clutches of eggs in carefully constructed nests,
    this might be evidence supporting the claim that
  • a. dinosaurs were as fully endothermal
    (warm-blooded) as modern birds and mammals.
  • b. their feathers originally served as
    insulation, and only later became flight
    surfaces.
  • c. the earliest reptiles could fly, and the
    feathers of flightless dinosaurs were vestigial
    flight surfaces.
  • d. the feathers were plucked from the bodies of
    other adults to provide nest-building materials.
  • e. all fossils with feathers are actually some
    kind of bird.

34
  • Select the factor most likely to have caused the
    animals and plants of India to differ greatly
    from species in nearby Southeast Asia.
  • a. The species have become separated by
    convergent evolution.
  • b. The climates of the two regions are similar.
  • c. India is in the process of separating from the
    rest of Asia.
  • d. Life in India was wiped out by ancient
    volcanic eruptions.
  • e. India was a separate continent until 55
    million years ago.

35
  • Which of these illustrates the correct
    representation of the binomial scientific name
    for the African lion?
  • a. Panthera leo
  • b. panthera leo
  • c. Panthera leo
  • d. Panthera Leo
  • e. Panthera leo

36
  • The common housefly belongs to all of the
    following taxa. Assuming you had access to
    textbooks or other scientific literature, knowing
    which of the following should provide you with
    the most specific information about the common
    housefly?
  • a. order Diptera
  • b. family Muscidae
  • c. genus Musca
  • d. class Hexapoda
  • e. phylum Arthropoda

37
  • Which of the following pairs are the best
    examples of homologous structures?
  • a. bat wing and human hand
  • b. owl wing and hornet wing
  • c. porcupine quill and cactus spine
  • d. bat forelimb and bird wing
  • e. Australian mole and North American mole

38
  • In angiosperm plants, flower morphology can be
    very intricate. If a tree, such as a New Mexico
    locust, has flowers that share many morphological
    intricacies with flowers of the sweet pea vine,
    then the most likely explanation for these floral
    similarities is the same general explanation for
    the similarities between the
  • a. dorsal fins of sharks and of dolphins.
  • b. reduced eyes of Australian moles and North
    American moles.
  • c. scales on moth wings and the scales of fish
    skin.
  • d. cranial bones of humans and those of
    chimpanzees.
  • e. adaptations for flight in birds and
    adaptations for flight in bats.

39
  • Which species are extinct?
  • a. A and E
  • b. A and B
  • c. C and D
  • d. D and E

40
  • A researcher compared the nucleotide
  • sequences of a homologous gene from
  • five different species of mammals
  • with the homologous human gene.
  • The sequence homology between each
  • species' version of the gene and the human gene
    is presented as a percentage of similarity. What
    probably explains the inclusion of rabbits in
    this research?
  • a. Their short generation time provides a ready
    source of DNA.
  • b. They possess all of the shared derived
    characters as do the other species listed.
  • c. They are the closest known relatives of rhesus
    monkeys.
  • d. They are the outgroup.
  • e. They are the most recent common ancestor of
    the primates.

41
  • When it acts upon a gene, which of these
    processes consequently makes that gene an
    accurate molecular clock?
  • a. transcription
  • b. directional natural selection
  • c. mutation
  • d. proofreading
  • e. reverse transcription

42
  • The HIV genome's reliably high rate of change
    permits it to serve as a molecular clock. Which
    of these features is most responsible for this
    genome's high rate of change?
  • a. the relatively low number of nucleotides in
    the genome
  • b. the relatively small number of genes in the
    genome
  • c. the genome's ability to insert itself into the
    genome of the host
  • d. the lack of proofreading by the enzyme that
    converts HIV's RNA genome into a DNA genome

43
  • The following questions refer
  • to the table below, which
  • compares the sequence
  • homology of four different parts
  • (2 introns and 2 exons) of a gene that is found
    in five different eukaryotic species. Each part
    is numbered to indicate its distance from the
    promoter (e.g., Intron I is that closest to the
    promoter). The data reported for Species A were
    obtained by comparing DNA from one member of
    species A to another member of Species A.
  • Which of these is the best explanation for the
    high degree of sequence homology observed in Exon
    I among these five species?
  • a. It is the most-upstream exon of this gene.
  • b. Due to alternative gene splicing, this exon is
    often treated as an intron.
  • c. It codes for a polypeptide domain that has a
    crucial function.
  • d. These five species must actually constitute a
    single species.
  • e. This exon is rich in G-C base pairs thus, is
    more stable.

44
  • The following questions refer
  • to the table below, which
  • compares the sequence
  • homology of four different
  • Parts (2 introns and 2 exons) of a gene that is
    found in five different eukaryotic species. Each
    part is numbered to indicate its distance from
    the promoter (e.g., Intron I is that closest to
    the promoter). The data reported for Species A
    were obtained by comparing DNA from one member of
    species A to another member of Species A.
  • Regarding these sequence homology data, the
    principle of maximum parsimony would be
    applicable in
  • a. distinguishing introns from exons.
  • b. determining degree of sequence homology.
  • c. selecting appropriate genes for comparison
    among species.
  • d. inferring evolutionary relatedness from the
    number of sequence differences.

45
  • The following questions refer
  • to the table below, which
  • compares the sequence
  • homology of four different parts
  • (2 introns and 2 exons) of a gene that is found
    in five different eukaryotic species. Each part
    is numbered to indicate its distance from the
    promoter (e.g., Intron I is that closest to the
    promoter). The data reported for Species A were
    obtained by comparing DNA from one member of
    species A to another member of Species A.
  • Which of these four gene parts should allow the
    construction of the most accurate phylogenetic
    tree, assuming that this is the only part of the
    gene that has acted as a reliable molecular
    clock?
  • a. Intron I b. Exon I c. Intron VI d. Exon
    V

46
  • The following questions refer
  • to the table below, which
  • compares the sequence
  • homology of four different parts
  • (2 introns and 2 exons) of a gene that is found
    in five different eukaryotic species. Each part
    is numbered to indicate its distance from the
    promoter (e.g., Intron I is that closest to the
    promoter). The data reported for Species A were
    obtained by comparing DNA from one member of
    species A to another member of Species A.
  • Which of these is the best explanation for Intron
    I's relatively high sequence homology among these
    five species?
  • a. It is the most-upstream of this gene's
    introns.
  • b. It was once an exon, but became intronic in
    the common ancestor of these five species.
  • c. Due to alternative gene splicing, it is often
    treated as an exon in these five species as an
    exon, it codes for an important part of a
    polypeptide.
  • d. It has a relatively high average rate of
    mutation.

47
  • an outcrop of sedimentary rock whose
  • strata are labeled A-D.
  • Which stratum should contain the greatest
    proportion of extinct organisms?

48
  • an outcrop of sedimentary rock whose
  • strata are labeled A-D.
  • If "x" indicates the location of fossils of two
    closely related species, then fossils of their
    most-recent common ancestor are most likely to
    occur in which stratum?

49
  • Blue light is that portion of the visible
    spectrum that penetrates the deepest into bodies
    of water. Ultraviolet (UV) light, though, can
    penetrate even deeper. A gene within a population
    of marine fish that inhabits depths from 500 m to
    1,000 m has an allele for a
  • photopigment that is
  • sensitive to UV light,
  • and another allele for
  • a photopigment that is
  • sensitive to blue light.
  • Which graph below best
  • depicts the predicted
  • distribution of these
  • alleles if the fish that
  • carry these alleles prefer
  • to locate themselves where
  • they can see best?

50
  • When sufficient heat is applied, double-stranded
    DNA denatures into two single-stranded molecules
    as the heat breaks all of the hydrogen bonds. In
    an experiment, molecules of single-stranded DNA
    from species X are separately hybridized with
    putatively homologous single-stranded DNA
    molecules from five species (A-E). The hybridized
    DNAs are then heated, and the temperature at
    which complete denaturation occurs is recorded.
    Based on the data below,
  • which species is probably
  • most closely related to
  • species X?

51
  • Typically, mutations that modify the active site
    of an enzyme are more likely to be harmful than
    mutations that affect other parts of the enzyme.
    A hypothetical enzyme consists of four domains
    (AD), and the amino acid sequences of these four
    domains have been determined in five related
    species. Given the proportion of amino acid
    homologies among the five species at each of the
    four domains, which domain probably contains the
    active site?

52
  • Which curve in the graph below best depicts the
    way that mutation rate varies over time in a gene
    that can serve as a reliable molecular clock?

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