Chapters 22, 24, and 16 Review

1
Chapters 22, 24, and 16Review

• Questions

2
Cardio-Thoracic

• What structure is referred to as the pacemaker
  of the heart?
• SA node

3
Cardio-Thoracic

• Which portion of the heart receives the
  unoxygenated blood?
• right atrium

4
Cardio-Thoracic

• Which portion of the heart is responsible for
  pumping blood into the pulmonary artery?
• right ventricle

5
Cardio-Thoracic

• Which portion of the heart is responsible for
  pumping blood into the aorta?
• left ventricle

6
Cardio-Thoracic

• The coronary arteries arise from the ____.
• aorta

7
Cardio-Thoracic

• The coronary veins empty into the ____.
• coronary sinus

8
Cardio-Thoracic

• Which artery supplies blood to the walls of the
  left atrium and ventricle?
• circumflex

9
Cardio-Thoracic

• Which structure is attached to the valvular cusps
  and prevents valves from swinging back into the
  atria?
• chordae tendineae

10
Cardio-Thoracic

• There are ____ pulmonary veins.
• four

11
Cardio-Thoracic

• Which structure prevents the trachea from
  collapsing?
• hyaline cartilage

12
Cardio-Thoracic

• The structure between an alveoli and bronchiole
  is the ____.
• alveolar duct

13
Cardio-Thoracic

• The microscopic air sacs clustered at the end of
  the bronchiole are the ____.
• alveoli

14
Cardio-Thoracic

• The main bronchi, pulmonary arteries, veins, and
  lymphatic vessels enter the lung on the medial
  surface through the ____.
• hilum

15
Cardio-Thoracic

• The right lung is divided into how many lobes?
• three

16
Cardio-Thoracic

• The heart lies ____.
• slightly to the left within the mediastinum

17
Cardio-Thoracic

• The heart is surrounded by the ____.
• pericardium

18
Cardio-Thoracic

• The cardiac cycle refers to the events taking
  place during a ____.
• single heartbeat

19
Cardio-Thoracic

• When does the fetal heart begin developing?
• third week

20
Cardio-Thoracic

• What is the most common congenital chest
  deformity?
• pectus excavatum

21
Cardio-Thoracic

• What medical term refers to the abnormal
  accumulation of air in the pleural cavity?
• pneumothorax

22
Cardio-Thoracic

• An abnormal opening in the wall between the right
  and left ventricles of the heart is known as a(n)
  ____.
• ventricular septal defect

23
Cardio-Thoracic

• Which surgical instrument is preferred for the
  removal of a foreign body in the bronchial tree
  of infants and children?
• rigid bronchoscope

24
Cardio-Thoracic

• Which surgical patient position is used for a
  lobectomy?
• posterolateral

25
Cardio-Thoracic

• Which intercostal space is entered for a
  thoracotomy?
• fifth

26
Cardio-Thoracic

• Which piece of equipment assumes the role of the
  heart and lungs while undergoing cardiopulmonary
  bypass?
• pump oxygenator

27
Cardio-Thoracic

• For aortic cannulation during cardiopulmonary
  bypass, the cannula is placed in the ____.
• aorta

28
Cardio-Thoracic

• What protects the heart from damage during
  cardiopulmonary bypass?
• hypothermia

29
Cardio-Thoracic

• Which mechanical device is designed for
  circulatory support after cardiac procedures?
• intra-aortic balloon pump

30
Cardio-Thoracic

• Which type of hemostatic agent is placed on each
  side of the sternum after a median sternotomy?
• bone wax

31
Cardio-Thoracic

• Into which portion of the heart is the cannula
  placed to achieve venous cannulation for
  cardiopulmonary bypass?
• right atrium

32
Cardio-Thoracic

• The parts of the sternum from superior to
  inferior are ____.
• manubrium, body, and xiphoid process

33
Cardio-Thoracic

• What is the number of true ribs?
• 7

34
Cardio-Thoracic

• The trachea divides at the ____ into right and
  left bronchi.
• carina

35
Cardio-Thoracic

• Oxygenated blood leaves the lungs through the
  ____.
• pulmonary veins

36
Cardio-Thoracic

• Another name for the mitral valve is the ____.
• bicuspid

37
Cardio-Thoracic

• A normal adult heart rate averages ____ beats per
  minute.
• 72

38
Cardio-Thoracic

• The continuation of the umbilical vein is known
  as the ____.
• ductus venosus

39
Cardio-Thoracic

• After birth, with the elimination of placental
  circulation, which structure closes?
• ductus arteriosus

40
Cardio-Thoracic

• Symptomatic lesions of the mediastinum are
  malignant in ____ of all patients?
• 60

41
Cardio-Thoracic

• What percentage of all patients with carcinoma of
  the lung are cigarette smokers?
• 90

42
Cardio-Thoracic

• Which is the most common complaint in the patient
  with a thoracic aorta aneurysm?
• chest pain

43
Cardio-Thoracic

• For the posterolateral position, the operating
  room personnel should have what available?
• beanbag

44
Cardio-Thoracic

• It is most important that while handling the lens
  with light cord, the STSR should not ____.
• allow the lens with light cord to touch the drape

45
Cardio-Thoracic

• atrioventricular bundle
• bundle of His

46
Cardio-Thoracic

• Refers to a congenital deformity of the chest
  that is funnel-shaped.
• pectus excavatum

47
Cardio-Thoracic

• bicuspid valve
• mitral valve

48
Cardio-Thoracic

• A general term designating primary disease of the
  myocardium, often of obscure and unknown
  etiology.
• cardiomyopathy

49
Cardio-Thoracic

• Characterized by an atrial and ventricular rate
  of 100 beats per minute or more.
• tachycardia

50
Cardio-Thoracic

• Refers to a deformity of the chest wall that
  results in a prominent sternum .
• pectus carinatum

51
Cardio-Thoracic

• The compression of the heart due to a collection
  of blood or fluid within the pericardium.
• cardiac tamponade

52
Cardio-Thoracic

• Characterized by an atrial and ventricular rate
  of 60 beats per minute or less.
• bradycardia

53
Cardio-Thoracic

• Used for closed water-seal drainage .
• Pleur-evac

54
Neurosurgery

• The outermost layer of the meninges is the ____.
• dura

55
Neurosurgery

• A shallow groove on the brain is called a ____.
• sulcus

56
Neurosurgery

• The cerebral hemispheres are connected by a deep
  bridge of nerve fibers called the ____.
• corpus callosum

57
Neurosurgery

• A deep groove in the brain is called a ____.
• fissure

58
Neurosurgery

• The area that usually occurs in the left cerebral
  hemisphere and coordinates the complex muscular
  movements associated with speech is ____.
• Broca's area

59
Neurosurgery

• The left hemisphere is usually associated with
  ____.
• analytical thought

60
Neurosurgery

• Masses of gray matter located deep within the
  cerebral hemispheres are called the ____.
• basal ganglia

61
Neurosurgery

• The ____ serves as a relay station for sensory
  impulses by channeling them to appropriate
  regions of the cortex for interpretation.
• thalamus

62
Neurosurgery

• The structures within the ventricles that produce
  CSF are the ____.
• choroid plexuses

63
Neurosurgery

• The medulla oblongata controls breathing rhythm,
  heart rate and ____________ ______________.
• Blood Pressure

64
Neurosurgery

• Most CSF is produced within the ____ ventricle.
• lateral

65
Neurosurgery

• The aqueduct of Sylvius (cerebral aqueduct)
  connects the ____ ventricles.
• third and fourth

66
Neurosurgery

• The structure that extends from the level of the
  foramen magnum to the pons is the ____.
• medulla oblongata

67
Neurosurgery

• The ____ plays a key role in maintaining
  homeostasis by regulating a variety of visceral
  activities.
• hypothalamus

68
Neurosurgery

• The cerebellar hemispheres are joined in the
  midline by a structure called the ____.
• vermis
• .separated by a layer of dura mater called falx
  cerebelli, but joined

69
Neurosurgery

• The ____ is the largest of the cranial nerves and
  has three branches.
• trigeminal

70
Neurosurgery

• The ____ nerve supplies the muscles that act in
  adjusting the amount of light that enters the
  eyes.
• oculomotor

71
Neurosurgery

• The ____ nerve has autonomic motor fibers that
  supply the heart and a variety of smooth muscles.
• vagus

72
Neurosurgery

• The ____ nervous system functions independently
  and continuously without conscious effort.
• autonomic

73
Neurosurgery

• Leroy-Raney clips are used on ____.
• scalp edges

74
Neurosurgery

• The best way to control bleeding on the cut edges
  of bone is with ____.
• bone wax

75
Neurosurgery

• A ventricular shunt can be placed distally in the
  ____.
• atrium or the peritoneal cavity

76
Neurosurgery

• A congenital collection of abnormal vessels of
  the brain that increase in size with time best
  describes a(n) ____.
• arteriovenous malformation

77
Neurosurgery

• Which condition results from an obstruction of
  the flow of CSF, overproduction of CSF, or
  improper absorption of CSF?
• hydrocephalus

78
Neurosurgery

• Which condition results from a failure of the
  bony structures around the neural tube to close
  properly during embryonic development?
• spina bifida

79
Neurosurgery

• What are the 4 sequential steps that correctly
  outlines the procedure to turn a bone flap?
• incision, raise muscle flap, perforator,
  craniotome

80
Neurosurgery

• What is the best temperature for irrigation used
  on the brain?
• body temperature

81
Neurosurgery

• For a laminectomy with discectomy, the
  appropriate specimen is ____.
• disk

82
Neurosurgery

• What is the intraoperative purpose of a
  large-bore spinal needle during spinal
  procedures?
• proper disk level identification through X-ray

83
Neurosurgery

• Which procedure involves the release of the
  median nerve from the transverse carpal ligament?
  
• carpal tunnel release

84
Neurosurgery

• A bulky dressing is used postoperatively for a
  carpal tunnel release to ____.
• restrict movements of the wrist

85
Neurosurgery

• Which type of suture would most likely be used to
  close the dura on an adult patient?
• 4-0 Neurolon

86
Neurosurgery

• What bone forms portions of the base of the
  cranium, sides of the skull, and base and sides
  for the orbits?
• sphenoid bone

87
Neurosurgery

• The motor areas of the frontal lobes control
  ____.
• voluntary muscle movements

88
Neurosurgery

• What area of the brain is responsible for
  auditory comprehension?
• Wernickes area

89
Neurosurgery

• What is the largest structure of the basal
  ganglia of the brain?
• corpus striatum

90
Neurosurgery

• Which system is responsible for distinguishing
  between favorable or unfavorable outside stimuli?
  
• limbic

91
Neurosurgery

• What is the second largest structure of the
  brain?
• cerebellum

92
Neurosurgery

• The midbrain is located between the ____.
• Diencephalon and pons
• Diencephalon (encompasses the thalamus and
  hypothalamus) and Mid-brain, pons Medulla
  Oblongata Brain Stem

93
Neurosurgery

• There are ____ bones in the cervical region.
• seven

94
Neurosurgery

• What are the lateral extensions of the pedicles
  in the spine called?
• transverse processes

95
Neurosurgery

• Which artery provides the brain with most of its
  blood?
• internal carotid artery

96
Neurosurgery

• What nerve controls the voluntary muscles of the
  pharynx, larynx, palate, sternocleidomastoid, and
  trapezius?
• accessory

97
Neurosurgery

• Which term describes the organ of smell?
• olfactory

98
Neurosurgery

• Which malignant tumor of the brain usually cannot
  be totally excised?
• gliomas

99
Neurosurgery

• Which tumor is marked by loss of hearing,
  headache, vertigo, and facial pain?
• acoustic neuroma

100
Neurosurgery

• Cerebral aneurysms are typically found ____.
• at points of bifurcation in the arteries of the
  circle of Willis

101
Neurosurgery

• Brain hemorrhages are typically the result of
  ____.
• uncontrolled hypertension

102
Neurosurgery

• ____ are the most common of the slow-growing
  intracranial neoplasms.
• Meningiomas

103
Neurosurgery

• During a craniotomy for aneurysm repair, ____ may
  be necessary to prevent vasospasm.
• papaverine

104
Neurosurgery

• Which procedure requires two Mayo stands to
  prevent contamination?
• transphenoidal hypophysectomy

105
Neurosurgery

• What can previous ventriculoperitoneal shunt
  placement cause?
• small ventricles

106
Neurosurgery

• What is an area of platelike thickening in the
  embryonic epithelial layer that contains
  ectoderm.
• placode

107
Neurosurgery

• Can be subdivided into the sympathetic and
  parasympathetic nervous system.
• autonomic nervous system

108
Neurosurgery

• covers the brain and spinal cord .
• meninges

109
Neurosurgery

• Collection of arteries that give rise to the
  various branches supplying blood to the brain ..
• circle of Willis

110
Neurosurgery

• Normally used to decompress a tumor..
• CUSA

111
Neurosurgery

• Connects the CNS to skin and skeletal muscles via
  the cranial and spinal nerves.
• somatic nervous system

112
Neurosurgery

• Osteophyte?
• bony spur

113
Neurosurgery

• The space between bone and dura.
• epidural

114
Neurosurgery

• A defect of the CNS in which a hernial sac
  containing a portion of the spinal cord,
  meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid protrudes
  through a congenital opening in the vertebral
  column .
• myelomeningocele

115
Ophthalmology

• Bound anteriorly by the cornea and posteriorly by
  the front of the iris is a space referred to as
  the ____________ ______________.
• anterior chamber

116
Ophthalmology

• Aqueous humor is found in the ____.
• anterior chamber

117
Ophthalmology

• The substance found in the posterior chamber is
  called the ____.
• vitreous humor

118
Ophthalmology

• The ____ is an intrinsic muscle of the eye.
• ciliary body

119
Ophthalmology

• The term used to describe the location behind the
  globe is ____.
• retrobulbar

120
Ophthalmology

• The outermost tunic of the eyeball is called the
  ____.
• sclera

121
Ophthalmology

• Deviation of the position of the eye is called
  _____________.
• Strabismus

122
Ophthalmology

• A small lump on the inner or outer surface of
  the eyelid caused by an inflammatory reaction of
  material trapped inside an oil-secreting gland is
  called a(n) ___________________.
• chalazion

123
Ophthalmology

• An opacity of the crystalline lens is referred to
  as a(n) ____.
• cataract

124
Ophthalmology

• A person who completely lacks cones suffers from
  _____________.
• Ice Cream Withdrawal
• color blindness

125
Ophthalmology

• The innermost tunic of the eye is the ____.
• retina

126
Ophthalmology

• What regulates the amount of light entering the
  eye through the pupil?
• tulip
• iris

127
Ophthalmology

• What condition is characterized by excess
  pressure of the aqueous humor?
• May be treated with wacky tobackie!
• glaucoma

128
Ophthalmology

• What procedure is performed to open blocked tear
  ducts?
• lacrimal duct dilation

129
Ophthalmology

• Phacoemulsification is one method of
  _________________.
• removing an opaque lens

130
Ophthalmology

• Recession or resection is the surgical treatment
  for ____.
• strabismus

131
Ophthalmology

• What instrument is used to remove the recipient
  cornea during keratoplasty?
• trephine

132
Ophthalmology

• What is the primary function of the lateral
  rectus muscles?
• lateral eye movement

133
Ophthalmology

• A wedge-shaped fibrovascular growth of
  conjunctiva that extends onto the cornea is
  called _______________.
• pterygium

134
Ophthalmology

• Where are the lacrimal glands located?
• within the upper eyelids

135
Ophthalmology

• The nasolacrimal duct drains into the
  ______________.
• inferior meatus of the nose

136
Ophthalmology

• Inflammation of the lacrimal sac is called
  __________________.
• dacryocystitis

137
Ophthalmology

• Cryotherapy involves the use of ____.
• cold

138
Ophthalmology

• What pathology does the scleral buckle procedure
  treat?
• retinal detachment

139
Ophthalmology

• Why is dacryocystorhinostomy performed?
• to establish a new pathway for tear drainage

140
Ophthalmology

• Balanced salt solution (BSS) is used
  intraoperatively to ________________.
• irrigate the cornea

141
Ophthalmology

• During extracapsular cataract extraction, the
  ____________ _____________ remains.
• posterior capsule

142
Ophthalmology

• What is the action of acetylcholine chloride?
• to constrict the pupil

143
Ophthalmology

• The process of phacoemulsification uses what type
  of energy to fragment a cataract?
• ultrasonic

144
Ophthalmology

• Why is it important to remove the powder from the
  gloves prior to performing or assisting with
  ophthalmic surgery?
• to prevent corneal irritation

145
Ophthalmology

• What is the purpose of placing a traction suture
  prior to cataract extraction?
• to stabilize the globe

146
Ophthalmology

• Which type of incision used for cataract
  extraction is self-sealing?
• corneal

147
Ophthalmology

• Why is hydroxyapatite used following enucleation?
  
• to provide a base of support for the artificial
  eye

148
Ophthalmology

• Betamethasone is what type of pharmacological
  agent?
• anti-inflammatory

149
Ophthalmology

• Vitrectomy requires the use of what piece of
  specialized equipment?
• ocutome

150
Ophthalmology

• The function of the inferior oblique muscle is to
  ____. (Page 578)
• rotate the eye upward and away from the midline

151
Ophthalmology

• The mucous membrane covering of the eye is called
  ____.
• conjunctiva

152
Ophthalmology

• Which structure is referred to as the rainbow?
• iris

153
Ophthalmology

• The cornea consists of ____ layers.
• four

154
Ophthalmology

• The sensory layer of the retina is made of ____.
• photoreceptors

155
Ophthalmology

• ____ is the leading cause of blindness in the
  United States.
• Squinting?
• Glaucoma

156
Ophthalmology

• Epiretinal membrane is a term used to describe
  ____.
• scar tissue that forms over the macula

157
Ophthalmology

• Mydriatics and cycloplegic drugs cause ____.
• pupil dilation

158
Ophthalmology

• Diuretics are used to ____.
• reduce intraocular pressure

159
Ophthalmology

• Decadron is a common ____.
• steroid

160
Ophthalmology

• The most common suture needle used for corneal
  suturing is ____.
• spatula micropoint

161
Ophthalmology

• The most common suture material used for
  intraocular lens fixation is ____.
• polypropylene

162
Ophthalmology

• Chromic suture maintains tensile strength
  approximately _____ days.
• 10 to 14

163
Ophthalmology

• Congenital ptosis is marked by ____.
• dystrophy of the levator muscle

164
Ophthalmology

• Entropion is a condition that affects the ____.
• lower eyelid

165
Ophthalmology

• The removal of a section of the iris to relieve
  the pressure buildup that occurs in individuals
  with glaucoma is called_____.
• Iridectomy

166
Ophthalmology

• Intraocular pressure is measured with a ____
  prior to any incision.
• tonometer

167
Ophthalmology

• During what procedure may a patient receive an
  injection of intraocular gas to create pressure
  on the retina while subretinal fluid is
  reabsorbed and scars form?
• scleral buckle

168
Ophthalmology

• During a scleral buckling, a ____ may be used to
  secure the buckle in place.
• Watzke sleeve

169
Ophthalmology

• ____ sponges are the sponges of choice in
  Ophthalmic surgery
• Weck

170
Ophthalmology

• Corneal graft rejection may occur as late as ____
  following transplant.
• 20 years

171
Ophthalmology

• What is another name for the traction suture?
• bridal

172
Ophthalmology

• A fragmatome is used ____.
• to remove a cloudy lens, which obstructs the view
  of the retina.

173
Ophthalmology

• the cornea .term
• kerato-

174
Ophthalmology

• Removal of the eyeball?
• enucleation

175
Ophthalmology

• Incision into the iris?
• iridotomy

176
Ophthalmology

• the eyeball ..
• we are the world.
• globe

177
Ophthalmology

• A cutting instrument used to cut a circular piece
  of tissue
• trephine

178
Ophthalmology

• a swollen sebaceous gland in the eyelid
• chalazion

179
Ophthalmology

• used to coagulate tissue
• diathermy

180
Ophthalmology