AP REVIEW PART II

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AP REVIEWPART II

• Heredity Evolution
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Before I go any farther you may want to write
yourself a note to bring ear plugs to the test.
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What is a karyotype? A) the phenotype of an
individual B) a system of classifying cell
nuclei C) the genotype of an individual D) a
display of homologous chromosomes of a cell
organized in relation to their number, size, and
type E) a unique combination of chromosomes
found in a gamete
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Which of the following is the term for a human
cell that contains 22 pairs of autosomes and two
X chromosomes? A) a male somatic cell B) a
female somatic cell C) an unfertilized egg cell
D) a sperm cell E) Both A and D are correct.
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In a nucleosome, what is the DNA wrapped around?
A) ribosomes B) histones C) nucleolus protein
D) polymerase molecules E) mRNA
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If the liver cells of an animal have 24
chromosomes, its sperm cells would have how many
chromosomes? A)12 B) 6 C) 48 D) 24
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Which of the following is true of a species that
has a chromosome number of 2n 16? A) A gamete
from this species has 8 chromosomes. B) There
are 16 homologous pairs. C) The species is
diploid with 32 chromosomes. D) The species has
16 sets of chromosomes. E) During the S phase of
the cell cycle there will be 32 separate
chromosomes.
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A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and
homozygous white-flowered pea plants results in
offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates
A) the mistakes made by Mendel. B) a dihybrid
cross. C) true-breeding. D) dominance. E) the
blending model of genetics.
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What was the most significant result Gregor
Mendel drew from his experiments with pea plants?
A) Genes are composed of DNA. B) There is
considerable genetic variation in garden peas.
C) Traits are inherited in discrete units, and
are not the results of "blending." D) An
organism that is homozygous for many recessive
traits is at a disadvantage.
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A couple who are both carriers of the gene for
cystic fibrosis have two children who have cystic
fibrosis. What is the probability that their next
child will have cystic fibrosis? A) 0 B) 25
C) 100 D) 50 E) 75
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What is a genome? A) a specific sequence of
polypeptides within each cell B) the complete
complement of an organism's genes C) a
specialized polymer of four different kinds of
monomers D) a specific segment of DNA that is
found within a prokaryotic chromosome E) an
arrangement of our chromosomes from largest to
smallest
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If radioactive sulfur (35S) is used in a culture
medium of bacteria that contains phage viruses,
it will later appear in the A) viral coats. B)
bacterial cell wall. C) bacterial RNA. D) viral
DNA. E) viral RNA.
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In trying to determine whether DNA or protein was
the genetic material, Al Hershey and Martha Chase
made use of which of the following facts? A)
DNA does not contain sulfur, whereas protein
does. B) DNA contains phosphorus, but protein
does not. C) DNA contains greater amounts of
nitrogen than does protein. D) A and B only are
correct. E) A, B, and C are correct.
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What does transformation involve in bacteria?
A) the type of semiconservative replication
shown by DNA B) assimilation of external DNA
into a cell C) the creation of a strand of RNA
from a DNA molecule D) the infection of cells by
a phage DNA molecule E) the creation of a strand
of DNA from an RNA molecule
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Which of the following is least related to the
others in the list? A) DNA B) phage C) Avery
D) Griffith E) transformation
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What is the primary transcript of eukaryotic
genes? A) DNA B) mRNA C) rRNA D) hnRNA E)
tRNA
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e
b
d
a
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A particular eukaryotic protein is 300 amino
acids long. Which of the following could be the
maximum number of nucleotides in the DNA that
codes for the amino acids in this protein? A)
100 B) 1,800 C) 900 D) 300 E) 3
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Bacteriophage DNAs that have become integrated
into the host cell chromosome are called A)
transposons. B) prophages. C) T-even
bacteriophages. D) plasmids. E) intemperate
bacteriophages.
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Virulent phages undergo a(n) __________ life
cycle, whereas temperate phages are capable of
undergoing a(n) __________ cycle. A) infective
retroviral B) infective benign C) retroviral
infective D) lysogenic lytic E) lytic
lysogenic
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How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA
from restriction enzymes? A) by adding methyl
groups to adenines and cytosines B) by
reinforcing bacterial DNA structure with covalent
phosphodiester bonds C) adding histones to
protect the double-stranded DNA D) by forming
"sticky ends" of bacterial DNA to prevent the
enzyme from attaching E) using DNA ligase to
seal the bacterial DNA into a closed circle
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Plasmids are important in biotechnology because
they are A) a vehicle for the insertion of
recombinant DNA into bacteria. B) surfaces for
respiratory processes in bacteria. C)
recognition sites on recombinant DNA strands. D)
surfaces for protein synthesis in eukaryotic
recombinants. E) proviruses incorporated into
the host DNA.
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If you discovered a bacterial cell that contained
no restriction enzymes, which of the following
would you expect to happen? A) The cell would
create incomplete plasmids. B) The cell would be
unable to replicate its DNA. C) The cell would
become an obligate parasite. D) The cell would
be easily infected and lysed by bacteriophages.
E) Both A and D would occur.
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In his laboratory simulation of the early Earth,
Miller observed the abiotic synthesis of A)
liposomes. B) complex organic polymers. C)
amino acids. D) nucleoli. E) DNA.
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Approximately how far does the fossil record
extend back in time? A) 6,000 years B)
3,500,000 years C) 6,000,000 years D)
3,500,000,000 years E) 5,000,000,000,000 years
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c
b
a
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Which of the following can be used to determine
the absolute age of fossils? A) racemization
B) sedimentary strata C) the half-life of
isotopes D) index fossils E) cladistics
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If the half-life of carbon-14 is about 5,730
years, then a fossil that has one-eighth the
normal proportion of carbon-14 to carbon-12 is
probably __________ years old. A) 1,400 B)
2,800 C) 11,200 D) 16,800 E) 22,400
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All of the following are criteria for maintaining
a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium involving two
alleles except A) gene flow from other
populations must be zero. B) there should be no
natural selection. C) the frequency of all
genotypes must be equal. D) matings must be
random. E) populations must be large.
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• p2 2pq q2 (p q)2
• In fruit flies, the allele for normal length
  wings is dominant over the allele for vestigial
  wings (stubby curls that cannot be used for
  flight). In a population of 1,000 individuals,
  360 show the recessive phenotype. How many
  individuals would you expect to be homozygous
  dominant and heterozygous for this trait? of
  homo dominant ___________________ heterozygous
  _________________

160
480
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Two closely related species can best remain
distinct biological species by A)
hybridization. B) reproductive isolation from
one another. C) convergent evolution. D)
colonizing new habitats. E) geographic isolation
from one another.
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The usual isolating mechanism keeping closely
related species of birds reproductively isolated
from each other is __________ isolation. The
usual isolating mechanism keeping closely related
species of birds reproductively isolated from
each other is __________ isolation A) temporal
B) mechanical C) gametic D) behavioral E)
ecological
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Use the following options to answer the following
questions. For each description of reproductive
isolation, select the option that best describes
it. Options may be used once, more than once, or
not at all.A. gameticB. temporalC.
behavioralD. habitatE. mechanical9) two
species of orchids with different floral
anatomy10) two species of trout that breed in
different seasons11) two species of meadowlarks
with different mating songs 12) Two species of
garter snakes live in the same region, but one
lives in water and the other lives on land.13)
Two species of pine shed their pollen at
different times.14) Mating fruit flies recognize
the appearance, odor, tapping motions, and sounds
of members of their own species, but not of other
species.15) The scarlet oak is adapted to moist
bottomland, whereas the black oak is adapted to
dry upland soils.
e
b
c
d
b
c
d